Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF-New ETF

have a minimum par amount of $25 million. In addition, to be included in the Index, each bond must have a minimum term to maturity or call date greater than one calendar month.

The Fund invests by sampling the Index, meaning that it holds a range of securities that, in the aggregate, approximates the full Index in terms of key risk factors and other characteristics. All of the Fund's investments will be selected through the sampling process, and at least 80% of the Fund's assets will be invested in securities held in the Index. Under normal circumstances, at least 80% of the Fund's assets will be invested in securities whose income will be exempt from federal income taxes and the federal AMT. The Fund seeks to maintain a dollar-weighted average maturity consistent with that of the Index. As of XX, 2023, the dollar-weighted average maturity of the Index was XX years.

Principal Risks

The Fund is designed for investors with a low tolerance for risk, but you could still lose money by investing in it. The Fund is subject to the following risks, which could affect the Fund's performance, and the level of risk may vary based on market conditions:

•Interest rate risk, which is the chance that bond prices overall will decline because of rising interest rates.

•Income risk, which is the chance that the Fund's income will decline because of falling interest rates.

•Call risk, which is the chance that during periods of falling interest rates, issuers of callable bonds may call (redeem) securities with higher coupon rates or interest rates before their maturity dates. The Fund would then lose any price appreciation above the bond's call price and would be forced to reinvest the unanticipated proceeds at lower interest rates, resulting in a decline in the Fund's income. Such redemptions and subsequent reinvestments would also increase the Fund's portfolio turnover rate.

•Extension risk, which is the chance that during periods of rising interest rates, certain debt securities will be paid off substantially more slowly than originally anticipated, and the value of those securities may fall.

•Credit risk, which is the chance that a bond issuer will fail to pay interest or principal in a timely manner or that negative perceptions of the issuer's ability to make such payments will cause the price of that bond to decline. In general, credit risk should be relatively low for the Fund because it invests primarily in bonds that are considered to be of high quality.

•Index sampling risk, which is the chance that the securities selected for the Fund, in the aggregate, will not provide investment performance matching that of the Fund's target index. Index sampling risk for the Fund is expected to be low to moderate.

•Liquidity risk, which is the chance that the Fund may not be able to sell a security in a timely manner at a desired price.

•Tax risk, which is the chance that all or a portion of the tax-exempt income from municipal bonds held by the Fund will be declared taxable, possibly with

Investing in Index Funds

What Is Indexing?

Indexing is an investment strategy for tracking the performance of a specified market benchmark, or "index." An index is a group of securities whose overall performance is used as a standard to measure the investment performance of a particular market. There are many types of indexes. Some represent entire markets—such as the U.S. stock market or the U.S. bond market. Other indexes cover market segments—such as small-capitalization stocks or short-term bonds. One cannot invest directly in an index.

The index sponsor determines the securities to include in the index and the weighting of each security in the index. Under normal circumstances, the index sponsor will rebalance an index on a regular schedule. An index sponsor may carry out additional ad hoc index rebalances or delay or cancel a scheduled rebalance. Generally, the index sponsor does not provide any warranty, or accept any liability, with respect to the quality, accuracy, or completeness of either the target index or its related data. Errors made by the index sponsor may occur from time to time and may not be identified by the index sponsor for a period of time or at all. Vanguard does not provide any warranty or guarantee against such errors. Therefore, the gains, losses, or costs associated with the index sponsor's errors will generally be borne by the index fund and its shareholders.

An index fund seeks to hold all, or a representative sample, of the securities that make up its target index. Index funds attempt to mirror the performance of the target index, for better or worse. However, an index fund generally does not perform exactly like its target index. For example, index funds have operating expenses and transaction costs. Market indexes do not, and therefore they will usually have a slight performance advantage over funds that track them. The ability of an index fund to match its performance to that of its target index can also be impacted by, among other things, the timing and size of cash flows, asset valuation differences, and the size of the fund. Market disruptions and regulatory or policy restrictions could also have an adverse effect on a fund's ability to adjust its exposure to the required levels in order to track the index. The risk that a fund may not track the performance of its target index may be heightened during times of increased market volatility or other unusual market conditions.

Index funds typically have the following characteristics:

•Variety of investments. Depending on a fund's benchmark index, the fund may invest in the securities of a variety of companies, industries, and/or governments or government agencies.

•Relative performance consistency. Because they seek to track market benchmarks, index funds usually do not perform dramatically better or worse than their benchmarks.

•Low cost. Index funds are generally inexpensive to run compared with actively managed funds. They have low or no research costs and typically keep trading activity—and thus dealer markups and other transaction costs—to a minimum compared with actively managed funds.

Reinvestment of Distributions

In order to reinvest dividend and capital gains distributions, investors in the Fund's ETF Shares must hold their shares at a broker that offers a reinvestment service. This can be the broker's own service or a service made available by a third party, such as the broker's outside clearing firm or the DTC. If a reinvestment service is available, distributions of income and capital gains can automatically be reinvested in additional whole and fractional ETF Shares of the Fund. If a reinvestment service is not available, investors will receive their distributions in cash. To determine whether a reinvestment service is available and whether there is a commission or other charge for using this service, consult your broker.

As with all exchange-traded funds, reinvestment of dividend and capital gains distributions in additional ETF Shares will occur four business days or more after the ex-dividend date (the date when a distribution of dividends or capital gains is deducted from the price of the Fund's shares). The exact number of days depends on your broker. During that time, the amount of your distribution will not be invested in the Fund and therefore will not share in the Fund's income, gains, and losses.

Basic Tax Points

Investors in taxable accounts should be aware of the following basic federal income tax points:

•A majority of the income dividends that you receive are expected to be exempt from federal and alternative minimum taxes.

•Distributions of capital gains and any investment income that is not exempt from federal income tax are taxable to you whether or not you reinvest these amounts in additional ETF Shares.

•Distributions declared in December—if paid to you by the end of January—are taxable as if received in December.

•Any short-term capital gains distribution that you receive is taxable to you as ordinary income.

•Any distribution of net long-term capital gains is taxable to you as long-term capital gains, no matter how long you have owned ETF Shares.

•Capital gains distributions may vary considerably from year to year as a result of the Fund's normal investment activities and cash flows.

•Your cost basis in the Fund will be decreased by the amount of any return of capital that you receive. This, in turn, will affect the amount of any capital gain or loss that you realize when selling or exchanging your Fund shares.

•Return of capital distributions generally are not taxable to you until your cost basis has been reduced to zero. If your cost basis is at zero, return of capital distributions will be treated as capital gains.

•Exempt-interest dividends from a tax-exempt fund are taken into account in determining the taxable portion of any Social Security or railroad retirement benefits that you receive.

Subject to Completion

Preliminary Statement of Additional Information

Dated December 22, 2022

Information contained in this Statement of Additional Information is subject to completion or amendment. A registration statement for Vanguard Wellington Fund to add a new Series, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF, has been filed with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission but has not yet become effective.

Shares of Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF may not be sold, nor may offers to buy be accepted, prior

to the time the registration statement becomes effective. This Statement of Additional Information is not a

prospectus.

PART B

VANGUARD® WELLINGTON™ FUND

STATEMENT OF ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

XX, 2023

This Statement of Additional Information is not a prospectus but should be read in conjunction with the Fund's current prospectus (dated XX, 2023). To obtain, without charge, a prospectus or the most recent Annual Report to Shareholders, which contains the Fund's financial statements as hereby incorporated by reference, please contact The Vanguard Group, Inc. (Vanguard).

Phone: Investor Information Department at 800-662-7447

Online: vanguard.com

TABLE OF CONTENTS

Description of the Trust................................................................................................................................................................................	B-x
Fundamental Policies....................................................................................................................................................................................	B-x
Investment Strategies, Risks, and Nonfundamental Policies....................................................................................................................	B-x
Share Price.....................................................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx

Management of the Fund..............................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Investment Advisory and Other Services....................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Portfolio Transactions..................................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Proxy Voting.................................................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Information About the ETF Share Class......................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Financial Statements....................................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Description of Bond Ratings........................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx
Appendix A.....................................................................................................................................................................................................	B-xx

DESCRIPTION OF THE TRUST

Vanguard Wellington Fund (the Trust) currently offers the following funds and share classes (identified by ticker symbol):

	Share Classes1
Vanguard Fund	Investor	Admiral	ETF
Vanguard U.S. Liquidity Factor ETF	—	—	VFLQ2
Vanguard U.S. Minimum Volatility ETF	—	—	VFMV2
Vanguard U.S. Momentum Factor ETF	—	—	VFMO2
Vanguard U.S. Multifactor ETF	—	—	VFMF2
Vanguard U.S. Multifactor Fund	—	VFMFX	—
Vanguard U.S. Quality Factor ETF	—	—	VFQY2
Vanguard U.S. Value Factor ETF	—	—	VFVA2
Vanguard Wellington Fund	VWELX	VWENX	—
Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF	—	—	XX3

1Individually, a class; collectively, the classes.

2Exchange: Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.

3Exchange: XX

This Statement of Additional Information relates only to Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF. A separate Statement of Additional Information dated March 30, 2022, which relates to the Trust's other funds, can be obtained free of charge by contacting Vanguard. The Trust has the ability to offer additional funds or classes of shares. There is no limit on the number of full and fractional shares that may be issued for a single fund or class of shares.

Organization

The Trust was organized as a Delaware corporation in 1928, was reorganized as a Maryland corporation in 1973, and then was reorganized as a Delaware statutory trust in 1998. Prior to its reorganization as a Delaware statutory trust, the Trust was known as Vanguard Wellington Fund, Inc. The Trust is registered with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the 1940 Act) as an open-end management investment company. All Funds within the Trust are classified as diversified within the meaning of the 1940 Act.

Service Providers

Custodian. State Street Bank and Trust Company, One Lincoln Street, Boston, MA 02111, serves as the Fund's custodian. The custodian is responsible for maintaining the Fund's assets, keeping all necessary accounts and records of Fund assets, and appointing any foreign subcustodians or foreign securities depositories.

Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm. XX serves as the Fund's independent registered public accounting firm. The independent registered public accounting firm audits the Fund's annual financial statements and provides other related services.

Transfer and Dividend-Paying Agent. The Fund's transfer agent and dividend-paying agent is Vanguard, P.O. Box 2600, Valley Forge, PA 19482.

Characteristics of the Funds' Shares

Restrictions on Holding or Disposing of Shares. There are no restrictions on the right of shareholders to retain or dispose of the Fund's shares, other than those described in the Fund's current prospectus and elsewhere in this Statement of Additional Information. The Fund or class may be terminated by reorganization into another mutual fund or class or by liquidation and distribution of the assets of the Fund or class. Unless terminated by reorganization or liquidation, each Fund and share class will continue indefinitely.

Shareholder Liability. The Trust is organized under Delaware law, which provides that shareholders of a statutory trust are entitled to the same limitations of personal liability as shareholders of a corporation organized under Delaware law. This means that a shareholder of the Fund generally will not be personally liable for payment of the Fund's debts. Some state courts, however, may not apply Delaware law on this point. We believe that the possibility of such a situation arising is remote.

Dividend Rights. The shareholders of each class of the Fund are entitled to receive any dividends or other distributions declared by the Fund for each such class. No shares of the Fund have priority or preference over any other shares of the Fund with respect to distributions. Distributions will be made from the assets of the Fund and will be paid ratably to all shareholders of a particular class according to the number of shares of the class held by shareholders on the record date. The amount of dividends per share may vary between separate share classes of the Fund based upon differences in the net asset values of the different classes and differences in the way that expenses are allocated between share classes pursuant to a multiple class plan approved by the Fund's board of trustees.

Voting Rights. Shareholders are entitled to vote on a matter if (1) the matter concerns an amendment to the Declaration of Trust that would adversely affect to a material degree the rights and preferences of the shares of the Fund or any class;

(2)the trustees determine that it is necessary or desirable to obtain a shareholder vote; (3) a merger or consolidation, share conversion, share exchange, or sale of assets is proposed and a shareholder vote is required by the 1940 Act to approve the transaction; or (4) a shareholder vote is required under the 1940 Act. The 1940 Act requires a shareholder vote under various circumstances, including to elect or remove trustees upon the written request of shareholders representing 10% or more of the Fund's net assets, to change any fundamental policy of the Fund (please see Fundamental Policies), and to enter into certain merger transactions. Unless otherwise required by applicable law, shareholders of a Fund receive one vote for each dollar of net asset value owned on the record date and a fractional vote for each fractional dollar of net asset value owned on the record date. However, only the shares of the Fund or the class affected by a particular matter are entitled to vote on that matter. In addition, each class has exclusive voting rights on any matter submitted to shareholders that relates solely to that class, and each class has separate voting rights on any matter submitted to shareholders in which the interests of one class differ from the interests of another. Voting rights are noncumulative and cannot be modified without a majority vote by the shareholders.

Liquidation Rights. In the event that the Fund is liquidated, shareholders will be entitled to receive a pro rata share of the Fund's net assets. In the event that a class of shares is liquidated, shareholders of that class will be entitled to receive a pro rata share of the Fund's net assets that are allocated to that class. Shareholders may receive cash, securities, or a combination of the two.

Preemptive Rights. There are no preemptive rights associated with the Fund's shares.

Conversion Rights. There are no conversion rights associated with Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF.

Redemption Provisions. The Fund's redemption provisions are described in its current prospectus and elsewhere in this Statement of Additional Information.

Sinking Fund Provisions. The Fund has no sinking fund provisions.

Calls or Assessment. The Fund's shares, when issued, are fully paid and non-assessable.

Shareholder Rights. Any limitations on a shareholder's right to bring an action do not apply to claims arising under the federal securities laws to the extent that any such federal securities laws, rules, or regulations do not permit such limitations.

Tax Status of the Fund

The Fund expects to qualify each year for treatment as a "regulated investment company" under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the IRC). This special tax status means that the Fund will not be liable for federal tax on income and capital gains distributed to shareholders. In order to preserve its tax status, the Fund must comply with certain requirements relating to the source of its income and the diversification of its assets. If the Fund fails to meet these requirements in any taxable year, the Fund will, in some cases, be able to cure such failure, including by paying a fund-level tax, paying interest, making additional distributions, and/or disposing of certain assets. If the Fund is ineligible to or otherwise does not cure such failure for any year, it will be subject to tax on its taxable income at corporate rates, and all distributions from earnings and profits, including any distributions of net tax-exempt income and net long- term capital gains, will be taxable to shareholders as ordinary income. In addition, the Fund could be required to recognize unrealized gains, pay substantial taxes and interest, and make substantial distributions before regaining its tax status as a regulated investment company.

The Fund may declare a capital gain dividend consisting of the excess (if any) of net realized long-term capital gains over net realized short-term capital losses. Net capital gains for a fiscal year are computed by taking into account any capital loss carryforwards of the Fund. Capital losses may be carried forward indefinitely and retain their character as either short-term or long-term.

FUNDAMENTAL POLICIES

The Fund is subject to the following fundamental investment policies, which cannot be changed in any material way without the approval of the holders of a majority of the Fund's shares. For these purposes, a "majority" of shares means shares representing the lesser of (1) 67% or more of the Fund's net assets voted, so long as shares representing more than 50% of the Fund's net assets are present or represented by proxy or (2) more than 50% of the Fund's net assets.

80% Policy. The Fund will invest at least 80% of its assets in tax-exempt securities under normal market conditions. For purposes of these 80% policies, assets include net assets and borrowings for investment purposes.

Borrowing. The Fund may borrow money only as permitted by the 1940 Act or other governing statute, by the Rules thereunder, or by the SEC or other regulatory agency with authority over the Fund.

Commodities. The Fund may invest in commodities only as permitted by the 1940 Act or other governing statute, by the Rules thereunder, or by the SEC or other regulatory agency with authority over the Fund.

Diversification.

With respect to 75% of its total assets, the Fund may not (1) purchase more than 10% of the outstanding voting securities of any one issuer or (2) purchase securities of any issuer if, as a result, more than 5% of the Fund's total assets would be invested in that issuer's securities. This limitation does not apply to obligations of the U.S. government or its agencies or instrumentalities.

Industry Concentration.

The Fund will not concentrate its investments in the securities of issuers whose principal business activities are in the same industry or group of industries.

Loans. The Fund may make loans to another person only as permitted by the 1940 Act or other governing statute, by the Rules thereunder, or by the SEC or other regulatory agency with authority over the Fund.

Real Estate. The Fund may not invest directly in real estate unless it is acquired as a result of ownership of securities or other instruments. This restriction shall not prevent the Fund from investing in securities or other instruments (1) issued by companies that invest, deal, or otherwise engage in transactions in real estate or (2) backed or secured by real estate or interests in real estate.

Senior Securities. The Fund may not issue senior securities except as permitted by the 1940 Act or other governing statute, by the Rules thereunder, or by the SEC or other regulatory agency with authority over the Fund.

Underwriting. The Fund may not act as an underwriter of another issuer's securities, except to the extent that the Fund may be deemed to be an underwriter within the meaning of the Securities Act of 1933 (the 1933 Act), in connection with the purchase and sale of portfolio securities.

Compliance with the fundamental policies previously described is generally measured at the time the securities are purchased. Unless otherwise required by the 1940 Act (as is the case with borrowing), if a percentage restriction is adhered to at the time the investment is made, a later change in percentage resulting from a change in the market value of assets will not constitute a violation of such restriction. All fundamental policies must comply with applicable regulatory requirements. For more details, see Investment Strategies, Risks, and Nonfundamental Policies.

None of these policies prevents the Fund from having an ownership interest in Vanguard. As a part owner of Vanguard, the Fund may own securities issued by Vanguard, make loans to Vanguard, and contribute to Vanguard's costs or other financial requirements. See Management of the Funds for more information.

INVESTMENT STRATEGIES, RISKS, AND NONFUNDAMENTAL POLICIES

Some of the investment strategies and policies described on the following pages and in the Fund's prospectus set forth percentage limitations on the Fund's investment in, or holdings of, certain securities or other assets. Unless otherwise required by law, compliance with these strategies and policies will be determined immediately after the acquisition of such securities or assets by the Fund. Subsequent changes in values, net assets, or other circumstances will not be considered when determining whether the investment complies with the Fund's investment strategies and policies.

The following investment strategies, risks, and policies supplement the Fund's investment strategies, risks, and policies set forth in the prospectus. With respect to the different investments discussed as follows, the Fund may acquire such investments to the extent consistent with its investment strategies and policies.

Borrowing. A fund's ability to borrow money is limited by its investment policies and limitations; by the 1940 Act; and by applicable exemptions, no-action letters, interpretations, and other pronouncements issued from time to time by the SEC and its staff or any other regulatory authority with jurisdiction. Under the 1940 Act, a fund is required to maintain continuous asset coverage (i.e., total assets including borrowings, less liabilities exclusive of borrowings) of 300% of the amount borrowed, with an exception for borrowings not in excess of 5% of the fund's total assets (at the time of borrowing) made for temporary or emergency purposes. Any borrowings for temporary purposes in excess of 5% of the fund's total assets must maintain continuous asset coverage. If the 300% asset coverage should decline as a result of market fluctuations or for other reasons, a fund may be required to sell some of its portfolio holdings within three days (excluding Sundays and holidays) to reduce the debt and restore the 300% asset coverage, even though it may be disadvantageous from an investment standpoint to sell securities at that time.

Borrowing will tend to exaggerate the effect on net asset value of any increase or decrease in the market value of a fund's portfolio. Money borrowed will be subject to interest costs that may or may not be recovered by earnings on the securities purchased with the proceeds of such borrowing. A fund also may be required to maintain minimum average balances in connection with a borrowing or to pay a commitment or other fee to maintain a line of credit; either of these requirements would increase the cost of borrowing over the stated interest rate.

A borrowing transaction will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by a fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4 under the 1940 Act.

Cybersecurity Risks. The increased use of technology to conduct business could subject a fund and its third-party service providers (including, but not limited to, investment advisors, transfer agents, and custodians) to risks associated with cybersecurity. In general, a cybersecurity incident can occur as a result of a deliberate attack designed to gain unauthorized access to digital systems. If the attack is successful, an unauthorized person or persons could misappropriate assets or sensitive information, corrupt data, or cause operational disruption. A cybersecurity incident could also occur unintentionally if, for example, an authorized person inadvertently released proprietary or confidential information. Vanguard has developed robust technological safeguards and business continuity plans to prevent, or reduce the impact of, potential cybersecurity incidents. Additionally, Vanguard has a process for assessing the information security and/or cybersecurity programs implemented by a fund's third-party service providers, which helps minimize the risk of potential incidents that could impact a Vanguard fund or its shareholders. Despite these measures, a cybersecurity incident still has the potential to disrupt business operations, which could negatively impact a fund and/or its shareholders. Some examples of negative impacts that could occur as a result of a cybersecurity incident include, but are not limited to, the following: a fund may be unable to calculate its net asset value (NAV), a fund's shareholders may be unable to transact business, a fund may be unable to process transactions, or a fund may be unable to safeguard its data or the personal information of its shareholders.

Debt Securities. A debt security, sometimes called a fixed income security, consists of a certificate or other evidence of a debt (secured or unsecured) upon which the issuer of the debt security promises to pay the holder a fixed, variable, or floating rate of interest for a specified length of time and to repay the debt on the specified maturity date. Some debt securities, such as zero-coupon bonds, do not make regular interest payments but are issued at a discount to their principal or maturity value. Debt securities include a variety of fixed income obligations, including, but not limited to, corporate bonds, government securities, municipal securities, convertible securities, mortgage-backed securities, and asset-backed securities. Debt securities include investment-grade securities, non-investment-grade securities, and unrated securities. Debt securities are subject to a variety of risks, such as interest rate risk, income risk, call risk, prepayment risk, extension risk, inflation risk, credit risk, liquidity risk, coupon deferral risk, lower recovery value risk, and (in the case of foreign securities) country risk and currency risk. The reorganization of an issuer under the federal bankruptcy laws or an out-of-court restructuring of an issuer's capital structure may result in the issuer's debt securities being cancelled without repayment, repaid only in part, or repaid in part or in whole through an exchange thereof for any combination of cash, debt securities, convertible securities, equity securities, or other instruments or rights in respect to the same issuer or a related entity.

Debt Securities—Commercial Paper. Commercial paper refers to short-term, unsecured promissory notes issued by corporations to finance short-term credit needs. It is usually sold on a discount basis and has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 9 months. High-quality commercial paper typically has the following characteristics: (1) liquidity ratios are adequate to meet cash requirements; (2) long-term senior debt is also high credit quality; (3) the issuer has access to at least two additional channels of borrowing; (4) basic earnings and cash flow have an upward trend with allowance made for unusual circumstances; (5) typically, the issuer's industry is well established and the issuer has a strong position within the industry; and (6) the reliability and quality of management are unquestioned. In assessing the credit quality of commercial paper issuers, the following factors may be considered: (1) evaluation of the management of the issuer, (2) economic evaluation of the issuer's industry or industries and the appraisal of speculative-type risks that may be inherent in certain areas, (3) evaluation of the issuer's products in relation to competition and customer acceptance, (4) liquidity, (5) amount and quality of long-term debt, (6) trend of earnings over a period of ten years, (7) financial strength of a parent company and the relationships that exist with the issuer, and (8) recognition by the management of obligations that may be present or may arise as a result of public-interest questions and preparations to meet such obligations. The short-term nature of a commercial paper investment makes it less susceptible to interest rate risk than longer-term fixed income securities because interest rate risk typically increases as maturity lengths increase. Additionally, an issuer may expect to repay commercial paper obligations at maturity from the proceeds of the issuance of new commercial paper. As a result, investment in commercial paper is subject to the risk the issuer cannot issue enough new commercial paper to satisfy its outstanding commercial paper payment obligations, also known as rollover risk. Commercial paper may suffer from reduced liquidity due to certain circumstances, in particular, during stressed markets. In addition, as with all fixed income securities, an issuer may default on its commercial paper obligation.

Variable-amount master-demand notes are demand obligations that permit the investment of fluctuating amounts at varying market rates of interest pursuant to an arrangement between the issuer and a commercial bank acting as agent for the payees of such notes, whereby both parties have the right to vary the amount of the outstanding indebtedness on the notes. Because variable-amount master-demand notes are direct lending arrangements between a lender and a borrower, it is not generally contemplated that such instruments will be traded, and there is no secondary market for these notes, although they are redeemable (and thus immediately repayable by the borrower) at face value, plus accrued interest, at any time. In connection with a fund's investment in variable-amount master-demand notes, Vanguard's investment management staff will monitor, on an ongoing basis, the earning power, cash flow, and other liquidity ratios of the issuer, along with the borrower's ability to pay principal and interest on demand.

Debt Securities—Non-Investment-Grade Securities. Non-investment-grade securities, also referred to as "high-yield securities" or "junk bonds," are debt securities that are rated lower than the four highest rating categories by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization (e.g., lower than Baa3/P-2 by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. (Moody's) or below BBB–/A-2 by Standard & Poor's Financial Services LLC (Standard & Poor's)) or, if unrated, are determined to be of comparable quality by the fund's advisor. These securities are generally considered to be, on balance, predominantly speculative with respect to capacity to pay interest and repay principal in accordance with the terms of the obligation, and they will generally involve more credit risk than securities in the investment-grade categories. Non-investment-grade securities generally provide greater income and opportunity for capital appreciation than higher quality securities, but they also typically entail greater price volatility and principal and income risk.

Analysis of the creditworthiness of issuers of high-yield securities may be more complex than for issuers of investment- grade securities. Thus, reliance on credit ratings in making investment decisions entails greater risks for high-yield securities than for investment-grade securities. The success of a fund's advisor in managing high-yield securities is more dependent upon its own credit analysis than is the case with investment-grade securities.

Some high-yield securities are issued by smaller, less-seasoned companies, while others are issued as part of a corporate restructuring such as an acquisition, a merger, or a leveraged buyout. Companies that issue high-yield securities are often highly leveraged and may not have more traditional methods of financing available to them.

Therefore, the risk associated with acquiring the securities of such issuers generally is greater than is the case with investment-grade securities. Some high-yield securities were once rated as investment-grade but have been downgraded to junk bond status because of financial difficulties experienced by their issuers.

The market values of high-yield securities tend to reflect individual issuer developments to a greater extent than do investment-grade securities, which in general react to fluctuations in the general level of interest rates. High-yield securities also tend to be more sensitive to economic conditions than are investment-grade securities. An actual or anticipated economic downturn or sustained period of rising interest rates, for example, could cause a decline in junk bond prices because the advent of a recession could lessen the ability of a highly leveraged company to make principal and interest payments on its debt securities. If an issuer of high-yield securities defaults, in addition to risking payment of all or a portion of interest and principal, a fund investing in such securities may incur additional expenses to seek recovery.

The secondary market on which high-yield securities are traded may be less liquid than the market for investment-grade securities. Less liquidity in the secondary trading market could adversely affect the ability of a fund's advisor to sell a high- yield security or the price at which a fund's advisor could sell a high-yield security, and it could also adversely affect the daily net asset value of fund shares. When secondary markets for high-yield securities are less liquid than the market for investment-grade securities, it may be more difficult to value the securities because such valuation may require more research, and elements of judgment may play a greater role in the valuation of the securities.

Except as otherwise provided in a fund's prospectus, if a credit rating agency changes the rating of a portfolio security held by a fund, the fund may retain the portfolio security if the advisor deems it in the best interests of shareholders.

Debt Securities—Variable and Floating Rate Securities. Variable and floating rate securities are debt securities that provide for periodic adjustments in the interest rate paid on the security. Variable rate securities provide for a specified periodic adjustment in the interest rate, while floating rate securities have interest rates that change whenever there is a change in a designated benchmark or reference rate (such as the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) or another reference rate) or the issuer's credit quality. There is a risk that the current interest rate on variable and floating rate securities may not accurately reflect current market interest rates or adequately compensate the holder for the current creditworthiness of the issuer. Some variable or floating rate securities are structured with liquidity features such as (1) put options or tender options that permit holders (sometimes subject to conditions) to demand payment of the unpaid principal balance plus accrued interest from the issuers or certain financial intermediaries or (2) auction-rate features, remarketing provisions, or other maturity-shortening devices designed to enable the issuer to refinance or redeem outstanding debt securities (market-dependent liquidity features). Variable or floating rate securities that include market-

dependent liquidity features may have greater liquidity risk than other securities. The greater liquidity risk may exist, for example, because of the failure of a market-dependent liquidity feature to operate as intended (as a result of the issuer's declining creditworthiness, adverse market conditions, or other factors) or the inability or unwillingness of a participating broker-dealer to make a secondary market for such securities. As a result, variable or floating rate securities that include market-dependent liquidity features may lose value, and the holders of such securities may be required to retain them until the later of the repurchase date, the resale date, or the date of maturity. Such liquidity risk may be heightened for certain types of variable rate securities called "extendible municipal securities," in which the holder of a security is required to retain the investment for the length of the remarketing period (the time frame in which a remarketing agent seeks a new buyer for the security). Extendible municipal securities typically have extended remarketing periods of up to 13 months after a tender date. A demand instrument with a demand notice exceeding seven days may be considered illiquid if there is no secondary market for such security. Extendible municipal securities that have been "extended" into a longer remarketing period may also be considered illiquid.

Derivatives. A derivative is a financial instrument that has a value based on—or "derived from"—the values of other assets, reference rates, or indexes. Derivatives may relate to a wide variety of underlying references, such as commodities, stocks, bonds, interest rates, currency exchange rates, and related indexes. Derivatives include futures contracts and options on futures contracts, certain forward-commitment transactions, options on securities, caps, floors, collars, swap agreements, and certain other financial instruments. Some derivatives, such as futures contracts and certain options, are traded on U.S. commodity and securities exchanges, while other derivatives, such as swap agreements, may be privately negotiated and entered into in the over-the-counter market (OTC Derivatives) or may be cleared through a clearinghouse (Cleared Derivatives) and traded on an exchange or swap execution facility. As a result of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act), certain swap agreements, such as certain standardized credit default and interest rate swap agreements, must be cleared through a clearinghouse and traded on an exchange or swap execution facility. This could result in an increase in the overall costs of such transactions. While the intent of derivatives regulatory reform is to mitigate risks associated with derivatives markets, the regulations could, among other things, increase liquidity and decrease pricing for more standardized products while decreasing liquidity and increasing pricing for less standardized products. The risks associated with the use of derivatives are different from, and possibly greater than, the risks associated with investing directly in the securities or assets on which the derivatives are based.

Derivatives may be used for a variety of purposes, including—but not limited to—hedging, managing risk, seeking to stay fully invested, seeking to reduce transaction costs, seeking to simulate an investment in equity or debt securities or other investments, and seeking to add value by using derivatives to more efficiently implement portfolio positions when derivatives are favorably priced relative to equity or debt securities or other investments. Some investors may use derivatives primarily for speculative purposes while other uses of derivatives may not constitute speculation. There is no assurance that any derivatives strategy used by a fund's advisor will succeed. The other parties to a fund's OTC Derivatives contracts (usually referred to as "counterparties") will not be considered the issuers thereof for purposes of certain provisions of the 1940 Act and the IRC, although such OTC Derivatives may qualify as securities or investments under such laws. A fund's advisor(s), however, will monitor and adjust, as appropriate, the fund's credit risk exposure to OTC Derivative counterparties.

Derivative products are highly specialized instruments that require investment techniques and risk analyses different from those associated with stocks, bonds, and other traditional investments. The use of a derivative requires an understanding not only of the underlying instrument but also of the derivative itself, without the benefit of observing the performance of the derivative under all possible market conditions.

When a fund enters into a Cleared Derivative, an initial margin deposit with a Futures Commission Merchant (FCM) is required. Initial margin deposits are typically calculated as an amount equal to the volatility in market value of a Cleared Derivative over a fixed period. If the value of the fund's Cleared Derivatives declines, the fund will be required to make additional "variation margin" payments to the FCM to settle the change in value. If the value of the fund's Cleared Derivatives increases, the FCM will be required to make additional "variation margin" payments to the fund to settle the change in value. This process is known as "marking-to-market" and is calculated on a daily basis.

For OTC Derivatives, a fund is subject to the risk that a loss may be sustained as a result of the insolvency or bankruptcy of the counterparty or the failure of the counterparty to make required payments or otherwise comply with the terms of the contract. Additionally, the use of credit derivatives can result in losses if a fund's advisor does not correctly evaluate the creditworthiness of the issuer on which the credit derivative is based.

Derivatives may be subject to liquidity risk, which exists when a particular derivative is difficult to purchase or sell. If a derivative transaction is particularly large or if the relevant market is illiquid (as is the case with certain OTC Derivatives), it may not be possible to initiate a transaction or liquidate a position at an advantageous time or price.

Derivatives may be subject to pricing or "basis" risk, which exists when a particular derivative becomes extraordinarily expensive relative to historical prices or the prices of corresponding cash market instruments. Under certain market conditions, it may not be economically feasible to initiate a transaction or liquidate a position in time to avoid a loss or take advantage of an opportunity.

Because certain derivatives have a leverage component, adverse changes in the value or level of the underlying asset, reference rate, or index can result in a loss substantially greater than the amount invested in the derivative itself. Certain derivatives have the potential for unlimited loss, regardless of the size of the initial investment. A derivative transaction will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by a fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4.

Like most other investments, derivative instruments are subject to the risk that the market value of the instrument will change in a way detrimental to a fund's interest. A fund bears the risk that its advisor will incorrectly forecast future market trends or the values of assets, reference rates, indexes, or other financial or economic factors in establishing derivative positions for the fund. If the advisor attempts to use a derivative as a hedge against, or as a substitute for, a portfolio investment, the fund will be exposed to the risk that the derivative will have or will develop imperfect or no correlation with the portfolio investment. This could cause substantial losses for the fund. Although hedging strategies involving derivative instruments can reduce the risk of loss, they can also reduce the opportunity for gain or even result in losses by offsetting favorable price movements in other fund investments. Many derivatives (in particular, OTC Derivatives) are complex and often valued subjectively. Improper valuations can result in increased cash payment requirements to counterparties or a loss of value to a fund.

On October 28, 2020, the Securities and Exchange Commission adopted new regulations governing the use of derivatives by registered investment companies ("Rule 18f-4"). The Funds were required to implement and comply with Rule 18f-4 by August 19, 2022. Rule 18f-4 imposes limits on the amount of derivatives a fund can enter into, eliminates the asset segregation framework currently used by funds to comply with Section 18 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, treats derivatives as senior securities and requires funds whose use of derivatives is more than a limited specified exposure amount to establish and maintain a comprehensive derivatives risk management program and appoint a derivatives risk manager.

The Fund intends to comply with Rule 4.5 under the Commodity Exchange Act (CEA), under which a fund may be excluded from the definition of the term Commodity Pool Operator (CPO) if the fund meets certain conditions such as limiting its investments in certain CEA-regulated instruments (e.g., futures, options, or swaps) and complying with certain marketing restrictions. Accordingly, Vanguard is not subject to registration or regulation as a CPO with respect to each Fund under the CEA. The Fund will only enter into futures contracts and futures options that are traded on a U.S. or foreign exchange, board of trade, or similar entity or that are quoted on an automated quotation system.

Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Considerations. Vanguard's Investment Stewardship Team, on behalf of the Board of Trustees of each Vanguard-advised fund, administers proxy voting for the equity holdings of the Vanguard-advised funds. The Investment Stewardship Team may engage with issuers to better understand how they are addressing material risks, including ESG risks. Specifically, the Investment Stewardship Team may engage with companies on how they disclose significant risks to shareholders, develop their risk mitigation approach, and report on progress.

Each fund has adopted procedures and guidelines for monitoring portfolio holding human rights practices and violations pursuant to which it may assess regulatory, reputational, or other risks associated with the alleged activity. In extraordinary circumstances a fund may divest of a portfolio holding where doing so is deemed appropriate.

Exchange-Traded Funds. A fund may purchase shares of exchange-traded funds (ETFs). Typically, a fund would purchase ETF shares for the same reason it would purchase (and as an alternative to purchasing) futures contracts: to obtain exposure to all or a portion of the stock or bond market. ETF shares enjoy several advantages over futures. Depending on the market, the holding period, and other factors, ETF shares can be less costly and more tax-efficient than futures. In addition, ETF shares can be purchased for smaller sums, offer exposure to market sectors and styles for which there is no suitable or liquid futures contract, and do not involve leverage.

An investment in an ETF generally presents the same principal risks as an investment in a conventional fund (i.e., one that is not exchange-traded) that has the same investment objective, strategies, and policies. The price of an ETF can fluctuate within a wide range, and a fund could lose money investing in an ETF if the prices of the securities owned by the ETF go down. In addition, ETFs are subject to the following risks that do not apply to conventional funds: (1) the market price of an ETF's shares may trade at a discount or a premium to their net asset value; (2) an active trading market for an

ETF's shares may not develop or be maintained; and (3) trading of an ETF's shares may be halted by the activation of individual or marketwide trading halts (which halt trading for a specific period of time when the price of a particular security or overall market prices decline by a specified percentage). Trading of an ETF's shares may also be halted if the shares are delisted from the exchange without first being listed on another exchange or if the listing exchange's officials determine that such action is appropriate in the interest of a fair and orderly market or for the protection of investors.

Most ETFs are investment companies. Therefore, a fund's purchases of ETF shares generally are subject to the limitations on, and the risks of, a fund's investments in other investment companies, which are described under the heading "Other Investment Companies."

Futures Contracts and Options on Futures Contracts. Futures contracts and options on futures contracts are derivatives. Each Fund's obligation under futures contracts will not exceed 20% of its total assets. The reasons for which a Fund may invest in futures include (1) to keep cash on hand to meet shareholder redemptions or other needs while simulating full investment in bonds or (2) to reduce the Fund's transaction costs or add value when these instruments are favorably priced.

A futures contract is a standardized agreement between two parties to buy or sell at a specific time in the future a specific quantity of a commodity at a specific price. The commodity may consist of an asset, a reference rate, or an index. A security futures contract relates to the sale of a specific quantity of shares of a single equity security or a narrow-based securities index. The value of a futures contract tends to increase and decrease in tandem with the value of the underlying commodity. The buyer of a futures contract enters into an agreement to purchase the underlying commodity on the settlement date and is said to be "long" the contract. The seller of a futures contract enters into an agreement to sell the underlying commodity on the settlement date and is said to be "short" the contract. The price at which a futures contract is entered into is established either in the electronic marketplace or by open outcry on the floor of an exchange between exchange members acting as traders or brokers. Open futures contracts can be liquidated or closed out by physical delivery of the underlying commodity or payment of the cash settlement amount on the settlement date, depending on the terms of the particular contract. Some financial futures contracts (such as security futures) provide for physical settlement at maturity. Other financial futures contracts (such as those relating to interest rates, foreign currencies, and broad-based securities indexes) generally provide for cash settlement at maturity. In the case of cash-settled futures contracts, the cash settlement amount is equal to the difference between the final settlement or market price for the relevant commodity on the last trading day of the contract and the price for the relevant commodity agreed upon at the outset of the contract. Most futures contracts, however, are not held until maturity but instead are "offset" before the settlement date through the establishment of an opposite and equal futures position.

The purchaser or seller of a futures contract is not required to deliver or pay for the underlying commodity unless the contract is held until the settlement date. However, both the purchaser and seller are required to deposit "initial margin" with a futures commission merchant (FCM) when the futures contract is entered into. Initial margin deposits are typically calculated as an amount equal to the volatility in market value of a contract over a fixed period. If the value of the fund's position declines, the fund will be required to make additional "variation margin" payments to the FCM to settle the change in value. If the value of the fund's position increases, the FCM will be required to make additional "variation margin" payments to the fund to settle the change in value. This process is known as "marking-to-market" and is calculated on a daily basis. A futures transaction will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by a fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4.

An option on a futures contract (or futures option) conveys the right, but not the obligation, to purchase (in the case of a call option) or sell (in the case of a put option) a specific futures contract at a specific price (called the "exercise" or "strike" price) any time before the option expires. The seller of an option is called an option writer. The purchase price of an option is called the premium. The potential loss to an option buyer is limited to the amount of the premium plus transaction costs. This will be the case, for example, if the option is held and not exercised prior to its expiration date. Generally, an option writer sells options with the goal of obtaining the premium paid by the option buyer. If an option sold by an option writer expires without being exercised, the writer retains the full amount of the premium. The option writer, however, has unlimited economic risk because its potential loss, except to the extent offset by the premium received when the option was written, is equal to the amount the option is "in-the-money" at the expiration date. A call option is in-the-money if the value of the underlying futures contract exceeds the exercise price of the option. A put option is in-the-money if the exercise price of the option exceeds the value of the underlying futures contract. Generally, any profit realized by an option buyer represents a loss for the option writer.

A fund that takes the position of a writer of a futures option is required to deposit and maintain initial and variation margin with respect to the option, as previously described in the case of futures contracts. A futures option transaction will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by a fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4.

Futures Contracts and Options on Futures Contracts—Risks. The risk of loss in trading futures contracts and in writing futures options can be substantial because of the low margin deposits required, the extremely high degree of leverage involved in futures and options pricing, and the potential high volatility of the futures markets. As a result, a relatively small price movement in a futures position may result in immediate and substantial loss (or gain) for the investor. For example, if at the time of purchase, 10% of the value of the futures contract is deposited as margin, a subsequent 10% decrease in the value of the futures contract would result in a total loss of the margin deposit, before any deduction for the transaction costs, if the account were then closed out. A 15% decrease would result in a loss equal to 150% of the original margin deposit if the contract were closed out. Thus, a purchase or sale of a futures contract, and the writing of a futures option, may result in losses in excess of the amount invested in the position. In the event of adverse price movements, a fund would continue to be required to make daily cash payments to maintain its required margin. In such situations, if the fund has insufficient cash, it may have to sell portfolio securities to meet daily margin requirements (and segregation requirements, if applicable) at a time when it may be disadvantageous to do so. In addition, on the settlement date, a fund may be required to make delivery of the instruments underlying the futures positions it holds.

A fund could suffer losses if it is unable to close out a futures contract or a futures option because of an illiquid secondary market. Futures contracts and futures options may be closed out only on an exchange that provides a secondary market for such products. However, there can be no assurance that a liquid secondary market will exist for any particular futures product at any specific time. Thus, it may not be possible to close a futures or option position. Moreover, most futures exchanges limit the amount of fluctuation permitted in futures contract prices during a single trading day. The daily limit establishes the maximum amount that the price of a futures contract may vary either up or down from the previous day's settlement price at the end of a trading session. Once the daily limit has been reached in a particular type of contract, no trades may be made on that day at a price beyond that limit. The daily limit governs only price movement during a particular trading day, and therefore does not limit potential losses because the limit may prevent the liquidation of unfavorable positions. Futures contract prices have occasionally moved to the daily limit for several consecutive trading days with little or no trading, thereby preventing prompt liquidation of future positions and subjecting some futures traders to substantial losses. The inability to close futures and options positions also could have an adverse impact on the ability to hedge a portfolio investment or to establish a substitute for a portfolio investment. U.S. Treasury futures are generally not subject to such daily limits.

A fund bears the risk that its advisor will incorrectly predict future market trends. If the advisor attempts to use a futures contract or a futures option as a hedge against, or as a substitute for, a portfolio investment, the fund will be exposed to the risk that the futures position will have or will develop imperfect or no correlation with the portfolio investment. This could cause substantial losses for the fund. Although hedging strategies involving futures products can reduce the risk of loss, they can also reduce the opportunity for gain or even result in losses by offsetting favorable price movements in other fund investments.

A fund could lose margin payments it has deposited with its FCM if, for example, the FCM breaches its agreement with the fund or becomes insolvent or goes into bankruptcy. In that event, the fund may be entitled to return of margin owed to it only in proportion to the amount received by the FCM's other customers, potentially resulting in losses to the fund.

Hybrid Instruments. A hybrid instrument, or hybrid, is an interest in an issuer that combines the characteristics of an equity security, a debt security, a commodity, and/or a derivative. A hybrid may have characteristics that, on the whole, more strongly suggest the existence of a bond, stock, or other traditional investment, but a hybrid may also have prominent features that are normally associated with a different type of investment. Moreover, hybrid instruments may be treated as a particular type of investment for one regulatory purpose (such as taxation) and may be simultaneously treated as a different type of investment for a different regulatory purpose (such as securities or commodity regulation). Hybrids can be used as an efficient means of pursuing a variety of investment goals, including increased total return, duration management, and currency hedging. Because hybrids combine features of two or more traditional investments and may involve the use of innovative structures, hybrids present risks that may be similar to, different from, or greater than those associated with traditional investments with similar characteristics.

Examples of hybrid instruments include convertible securities, which combine the investment characteristics of bonds and common stocks; perpetual bonds, which are structured like fixed income securities, have no maturity date, and may be characterized as debt or equity for certain regulatory purposes; contingent convertible securities, which are fixed income securities that, under certain circumstances, either convert into common stock of the issuer or undergo a principal write- down by a predetermined percentage if the issuer's capital ratio falls below a predetermined trigger level; and trust- preferred securities, which are preferred stocks of a special-purpose trust that holds subordinated debt of the corporate parent. Another example of a hybrid is a commodity-linked bond, such as a bond issued by an oil company that pays a small base level of interest with additional interest that accrues in correlation to the extent to which oil prices exceed a certain predetermined level. Such a hybrid would be a combination of a bond and a call option on oil.

In the case of hybrids that are structured like fixed income securities (such as structured notes), the principal amount or the interest rate is generally tied (positively or negatively) to the price of some commodity, currency, securities index, interest rate, or other economic factor (each, a benchmark). For some hybrids, the principal amount payable at maturity or the interest rate may be increased or decreased, depending on changes in the value of the benchmark. Other hybrids do not bear interest or pay dividends. The value of a hybrid or its interest rate may be a multiple of a benchmark and, as a result, may be leveraged and move (up or down) more steeply and rapidly than the benchmark, thus magnifying movements within the benchmark. These benchmarks may be sensitive to economic and political events, such as commodity shortages and currency devaluations, which cannot be readily foreseen by the purchaser of a hybrid. Under certain conditions, the redemption value of a hybrid could be zero. Thus, an investment in a hybrid may entail significant market risks that are not associated with a similar investment in a traditional, U.S. dollar-denominated bond with a fixed principal amount that pays a fixed rate or floating rate of interest. The purchase of hybrids also exposes a fund to the credit risk of the issuer of the hybrids. Depending on the level of a fund's investment in hybrids, these risks may cause significant fluctuations in the fund's net asset value. Hybrid instruments may also carry liquidity risk since the instruments are often "customized" to meet the needs of an issuer or, sometimes, the portfolio needs of a particular investor, and therefore the number of investors that are willing and able to buy such instruments in the secondary market may be smaller than that for more traditional securities.

Certain issuers of hybrid instruments known as structured products may be deemed to be investment companies as defined in the 1940 Act. As a result, a fund's investments in these products may be subject to the limitations described under the heading "Other Investment Companies."

Interfund Borrowing and Lending. The SEC has granted an exemption permitting registered open-end Vanguard funds to participate in Vanguard's interfund lending program. This program allows the Vanguard funds to borrow money from and lend money to each other for temporary or emergency purposes. The program is subject to a number of conditions, including, among other things, the requirements that (1) no fund may borrow or lend money through the program unless it receives a more favorable interest rate than is typically available from a bank for a comparable transaction, (2) no fund may lend money if the loan would cause its aggregate outstanding loans through the program to exceed 15% of its net assets at the time of the loan, and (3) a fund's interfund loans to any one fund shall not exceed 5% of the lending fund's net assets. In addition, a Vanguard fund may participate in the program only if and to the extent that such participation is consistent with the fund's investment objective and investment policies. The boards of trustees of the Vanguard funds are responsible for overseeing the interfund lending program. Any delay in repayment to a lending fund could result in a lost investment opportunity or additional borrowing costs.

Low or Negative Interest Rates. In a low or negative interest rate environment, debt securities may trade at, or be issued with, negative yields, which means the purchaser of the security may receive at maturity less than the total amount invested. In addition, in a negative interest rate environment, if a bank charges negative interest, instead of receiving interest on deposits, a depositor must pay the bank fees to keep money with the bank. To the extent a fund holds a negatively-yielding debt security or has a bank deposit with a negative interest rate, the fund would generate a negative return on that investment. Cash positions may also subject a fund to increased counterparty risk to the fund's bank.

Debt market conditions are highly unpredictable and some parts of the market are subject to dislocations. In response to recent market volatility and economic uncertainty, the U.S. government and certain foreign central banks have taken steps to stabilize markets by, among other things, reducing interest rates. As a result, interest rates in the United States are at historically low levels, and certain European countries and Japan have pursued negative interest rate policies. These actions present heightened risks to debt securities, and such risks could be even further heightened if these actions are unexpectedly or suddenly reversed or are ineffective in achieving their desired outcomes.

If low or negative interest rates become more prevalent in the market and/or if low or negative interest rates persist for a sustained period of time, some investors may seek to reallocate assets to other income-producing assets, such as investment-grade and higher-yield debt securities, or equity securities that pay a dividend, absent other market risks that may make such alternative investments unattractive. This increased demand for higher income-producing assets may cause the price of such securities to rise while triggering a corresponding decrease in yield over time, thus reducing the value of such alternative investments. These considerations may limit a fund's ability to locate fixed income instruments containing the desired risk/return profile. Changing interest rates, including, but not limited to, rates that fall below zero, could have unpredictable effects on the markets and may expose fixed income markets to heightened volatility and potential illiquidity.

A low or negative interest rate environment could, and a prolonged low or negative interest rate environment will, impact a fund's ability to provide a positive yield to its shareholders, pay expenses out of current income, and/or achieve its investment objective, including maintaining a stable NAV of $1 per share. In a prolonged environment of low to negative interest rates, the Funds' board of trustees may consider taking various actions including, but not limited to, enacting mechanisms to seek to maintain a stable NAV per share at $1.00, and discontinuing use of the amortized cost method of valuation to maintain a stable NAV of $1 per share and establishing a fluctuating NAV rounded to four decimal places by using available market quotations or equivalents.

Market Disruption. Significant market disruptions, such as those caused by pandemics, natural or environmental disasters, war, acts of terrorism, or other events, can adversely affect local and global markets and normal market operations. Market disruptions may exacerbate political, social, and economic risks discussed above and in a fund's prospectus. Additionally, market disruptions may result in increased market volatility; regulatory trading halts; closure of domestic or foreign exchanges, markets, or governments; or market participants operating pursuant to business continuity plans for indeterminate periods of time. Such events can be highly disruptive to economies and markets and significantly impact individual companies, sectors, industries, markets, currencies, interest and inflation rates, credit ratings, investor sentiment, and other factors affecting the value of a fund's investments and operation of a fund. These events could also result in the closure of businesses that are integral to a fund's operations or otherwise disrupt the ability of employees of fund service providers to perform essential tasks on behalf of a fund.

Municipal Bonds. Municipal bonds are debt obligations issued by states, municipalities, U.S. jurisdictions or territories, and other political subdivisions and by agencies, authorities, and instrumentalities of states and multistate agencies or authorities (collectively, municipalities). Typically, the interest payable on municipal bonds is, in the opinion of bond counsel to the issuer at the time of issuance, exempt from federal income tax.

Municipal bonds include securities from a variety of sectors, each of which has unique risks, and can be divided into government bonds (i.e., bonds issued to provide funding for governmental projects, such as public roads or schools) and conduit bonds (i.e., bonds issued to provide funding for a third-party permitted to use municipal bond proceeds, such as airports or hospitals). Except for the money market funds (see Fundamental Policies), the Funds will not concentrate in any one industry or group of industries; tax-exempt securities issued by states, municipalities, and their political subdivisions are not considered to be part of an industry. However, if a municipal bond's income is derived from a specific project, the securities will be considered to be from the industry of that project. Municipal bonds include, but are not limited to, general obligation bonds, limited obligation bonds, and revenue bonds, including industrial development bonds issued pursuant to federal tax law.

General obligation bonds are secured by the issuer's pledge of its full faith, credit, and taxing power for the payment of principal and interest. Limited obligation bonds are payable only from the revenues derived from a particular facility or class of facilities or, in some cases, from the proceeds of a special excise or other specific revenue source. Revenue or special tax bonds are payable only from the revenues derived from a particular facility or class of facilities or, in some cases, from the proceeds of a special excise or other tax, but not from general tax revenues.

Revenue bonds involve the credit risk of the underlying project or enterprise (or its corporate user) rather than the credit risk of the issuing municipality. Under the IRC, certain limited obligation bonds are considered "private activity bonds," and interest paid on such bonds is treated as an item of tax preference for purposes of calculating federal alternative minimum tax liability. Tax-exempt private activity bonds and industrial development bonds generally are also classified as revenue bonds and thus are not payable from the issuer's general revenues. The credit and quality of private activity bonds and industrial development bonds are usually related to the credit of the corporate user of the facilities. Payment of interest on and repayment of principal of such bonds are the responsibility of the corporate user (and/or any guarantor). Some municipal bonds may be issued as variable or floating rate securities and may incorporate market-dependent liquidity features (see discussion of "Debt Securities—Variable and Floating Rate Securities"). A tax-exempt fund will generally invest only in securities deemed tax-exempt by a nationally recognized bond counsel, but there is no guarantee that the interest payments on municipal bonds will continue to be tax-exempt for the life of the bonds.

Some longer-term municipal bonds give the investor a "put option," which is the right to sell the security back to the issuer at par (face value) prior to maturity, within a specified number of days following the investor's request—usually one to seven days. This demand feature enhances a security's liquidity by shortening its maturity and enables it to trade at a price equal to or very close to par. If a demand feature terminates prior to being exercised, a fund would hold the longer- term security, which could experience substantially more volatility. Municipal bonds that are issued as variable or floating rate securities incorporating market-dependent liquidity features may have greater liquidity risk than other municipal bonds (see discussion of "Debt Securities—Variable and Floating Rate Securities").

Some municipal bonds feature credit enhancements, such as lines of credit, letters of credit, municipal bond insurance, and standby bond purchase agreements (SBPAs). SBPAs include lines of credit that are issued by a third party, usually a bank, to enhance liquidity and ensure repayment of principal and any accrued interest if the underlying municipal bond should default. Municipal bond insurance (which is usually purchased by the bond issuer from a private, nongovernmental insurance company) provides an unconditional and irrevocable guarantee that the insured bond's principal and interest will be paid when due. Insurance does not guarantee the price of the bond or the share price of any fund. The credit quality of an insured bond reflects the higher of the credit quality of the insurer, based on its claims-paying ability, or the credit quality of the underlying bond issuer or obligor. The obligation of a municipal bond insurance company to pay a claim extends over the life of each insured bond. Although defaults on insured municipal bonds have been historically low and municipal bond insurers historically have met their claims, there is no assurance this will continue. A higher-than- expected default rate could strain the insurer's loss reserves and adversely affect its ability to pay claims to bondholders. The number of municipal bond insurers is relatively small, and not all of them are assessed as high credit quality. An SBPA can include a liquidity facility that is provided to pay the purchase price of any bonds that cannot be remarketed. The obligation of the liquidity provider (usually a bank) is only to advance funds to purchase tendered bonds that cannot be remarketed and does not cover principal or interest under any other circumstances. The liquidity provider's obligations under the SBPA are usually subject to numerous conditions, including the continued creditworthiness of the underlying borrower or bond issuer.

Municipal bonds also include tender option bonds, which are municipal bond structured products created by dividing the income stream provided by an underlying security, such as municipal bonds or preferred shares issued by a tax-exempt bond fund, to create two securities issued by a special-purpose trust, one short-term and one long-term. The interest rate on the short-term component is periodically reset. The short-term component has negligible interest rate risk, while the long-term component has all of the risk of the underlying security. After income is paid on the short-term securities at current rates, the residual income goes to the long-term securities. Therefore, rising short-term interest rates result in lower income for the longer-term portion, and vice versa. The longer-term components can be very volatile and may be less liquid than other municipal bonds of comparable maturity. These securities have been developed in the secondary market to meet the demand for short-term, tax-exempt securities.

Municipal securities also include a variety of structures geared toward accommodating municipal-issuer short-term cash- flow requirements. These structures include, but are not limited to, general market notes, commercial paper, put bonds, and variable-rate demand obligations (VRDOs). VRDOs comprise a significant percentage of the outstanding debt in the short-term municipal market. VRDOs can be structured to provide a wide range of maturity options (1 day to over 360 days) to the underlying issuing entity and are typically issued at par. The longer the maturity option, the greater the degree of liquidity risk (the risk of not receiving an asking price of par or greater) and reinvestment risk (the risk that the proceeds from maturing bonds must be reinvested at a lower interest rate).

Although most municipal bonds are exempt from federal income tax, some are not. Taxable municipal bonds include Build America Bonds (BABs). The borrowing costs of BABs are subsidized by the federal government, but BABs are

subject to state and federal income tax. BABs were created pursuant to the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) to offer an alternative form of financing to state and local governments whose primary means for accessing the capital markets had been through the issuance of tax-exempt municipal bonds. BABs also include Recovery Zone Economic Development Bonds, which are subsidized more heavily by the federal government than other BABs and are designed to finance certain types of projects in distressed geographic areas.

Under ARRA, an issuer of a BAB is entitled to receive payments from the U.S. Treasury over the life of the BAB equal to 35% of the interest paid (or 45% of the interest paid in the case of a Recovery Zone Economic Development Bond). For example, if a state or local government were to issue a BAB at a taxable interest rate of 10% of the par value of the bond, the U.S. Treasury would make a payment directly to the issuing government of 35% of that interest (3.5% of the par value of the bond) or 45% of the interest (4.5% of the par value of the bond) in the case of a Recovery Zone Economic Development Bond. Thus, the state or local government's net borrowing cost would be 6.5% or 5.5%, respectively, on BABs that pay 10% interest. In other cases, holders of a BAB receive a 35% or 45% tax credit, respectively. The BAB program expired on December 31, 2010. BABs outstanding prior to the expiration of the program continue to be eligible for the federal interest rate subsidy or tax credit, which continues for the life of the BABs; however, the federal interest rate subsidy or tax credit has been reduced by the government sequester. Additionally, bonds issued following expiration of the program are not eligible for federal payment or tax credit. In addition to BABs, a fund may invest in other municipal bonds that pay taxable interest.

The reorganization under the federal bankruptcy laws of an issuer of, or payment obligor with respect to, municipal bonds may result in the municipal bonds being canceled without repayment; repaid only in part; or repaid in part or whole through an exchange thereof for any combination of cash, municipal bonds, debt securities, convertible securities, equity securities, or other instruments or rights in respect to the same issuer or payment obligor or a related entity. Certain issuers are not eligible to file for bankruptcy.

Municipal Bonds—Risks. Municipal bonds are subject to credit risk. The yields of municipal bonds depend on, among other things, general money market conditions, conditions in the municipal bond market, size of a particular offering, maturity of the obligation, and credit quality of the issue. Consequently, municipal bonds with the same maturity, coupon, and credit quality may have different yields, while municipal bonds of the same maturity and coupon, but with different credit quality, may have the same yield. It is the responsibility of a fund's investment management advisor to appraise independently the fundamental quality of bonds held by the fund. Information about the financial condition of an issuer of municipal bonds may not be as extensive as that which is made available by corporations whose securities are publicly traded. Obligations of issuers of municipal bonds are generally subject to the provisions of bankruptcy, insolvency, and other laws affecting the rights and remedies of creditors.

Congress, state legislatures, or other governing authorities may seek to extend the time for payment of principal or interest, or both, or to impose other constraints upon enforcement of such obligations. For example, from time to time, proposals have been introduced before Congress to restrict or eliminate the federal income tax exemption for interest on municipal bonds. Also, from time to time, proposals have been introduced before state and local legislatures to restrict or eliminate the state and local income tax exemption for interest on municipal bonds. Similar proposals may be introduced in the future. If any such proposal were enacted, it might restrict or eliminate the ability of a fund to achieve its respective investment objective. In that event, the fund's trustees and officers would reevaluate its investment objective and policies and consider recommending to its shareholders changes in such objective and policies.

There is also the possibility that, as a result of litigation or other conditions, the power or ability of issuers to meet their obligations for the payment of interest and principal on their municipal bonds may be materially affected or their obligations may be found to be invalid or unenforceable. Such litigation or conditions may, from time to time, have the effect of introducing uncertainties in the market for municipal bonds or certain segments thereof or of materially affecting the credit risk with respect to particular bonds. Adverse economic, business, legal, or political developments might affect all or a substantial portion of a fund's municipal bonds in the same manner. For example, a state specific tax-exempt fund is subject to state-specific risk, which is the chance that the fund, because it invests primarily in securities issued by a particular state and its municipalities, is more vulnerable to unfavorable developments in that state than are funds that invest in municipal securities of many states. Unfavorable developments in any economic sector may have far-reaching ramifications on a state's overall municipal market. In the event that a particular obligation held by a fund is assessed at a credit quality below the minimum investment level permitted by the investment policies of such fund, the fund's investment advisor, pursuant to oversight from the trustees, will carefully assess the creditworthiness of the obligation to determine whether it continues to meet the policies and objective of the fund.

Municipal bonds are subject to interest rate risk, which is the chance that bond prices will decline over short or even long periods because of rising interest rates. Interest rate risk is higher for long-term bonds, whose prices are much

more sensitive to interest rate changes than are the prices of shorter-term bonds. Generally, prices of longer-maturity issues tend to fluctuate more than prices of shorter-maturity issues. Prices and yields on municipal bonds are dependent on a variety of factors, such as the financial condition of the issuer, the general conditions of the municipal bond market, the size of a particular offering, the maturity of the obligation, and the rating of the issue. A number of these factors, including the ratings of particular issues, are subject to change from time to time.

Municipal bonds are subject to call risk, which is the chance that during periods of falling interest rates, issuers of callable bonds may call (redeem) securities with higher coupons or interest rates before their maturity dates. A fund would then lose any price appreciation above the bond's call price and would be forced to reinvest the unanticipated proceeds at lower interest rates, resulting in a decline in the fund's income. Call risk is generally high for long-term bonds. Conversely, municipal bonds are also subject to extension risk, which is the chance that during periods of rising interest rates, certain debt securities will be paid off substantially more slowly than originally anticipated, and the value of those securities may fall. Extension risk is generally high for long-term bonds.

Municipal bonds may be deemed to be illiquid as determined by or in accordance with methods adopted by a fund's board of trustees. In determining the liquidity and appropriate valuation of a municipal bond, a fund's advisor may consider the following factors relating to the security, among others: (1) the frequency of trades and quotes; (2) the number of dealers willing to purchase or sell the security; (3) the willingness of dealers to undertake to make a market; (4) the nature of the marketplace trades, including the time needed to dispose of the security, the method of soliciting offers, and the mechanics of transfer; and (5) the factors unique to a particular security, including general creditworthiness of the issuer and the likelihood that the marketability of the securities will be maintained throughout the time the security is held by the fund.

Options. An option is a derivative. An option on a security (or index) is a contract that gives the holder of the option, in return for the payment of a "premium," the right, but not the obligation, to buy from (in the case of a call option) or sell to (in the case of a put option) the writer of the option the security underlying the option (or the cash value of the index) at a specified exercise price prior to the expiration date of the option. The writer of an option on a security has the obligation upon exercise of the option to deliver the underlying security upon payment of the exercise price (in the case of a call option) or to pay the exercise price upon delivery of the underlying security (in the case of a put option). The writer of an option on an index has the obligation upon exercise of the option to pay an amount equal to the cash value of the index minus the exercise price, multiplied by the specified multiplier for the index option. The multiplier for an index option determines the size of the investment position the option represents. Unlike exchange-traded options, which are standardized with respect to the underlying instrument, expiration date, contract size, and strike price, the terms of over- the-counter (OTC) options (options not traded on exchanges) generally are established through negotiation with the other party to the option contract. Although this type of arrangement allows the purchaser or writer greater flexibility to tailor an option to its needs, OTC options generally involve credit risk to the counterparty, whereas for exchange-traded, centrally cleared options, credit risk is mutualized through the involvement of the applicable clearing house.

The buyer (or holder) of an option is said to be "long" the option, while the seller (or writer) of an option is said to be "short" the option. A call option grants to the holder the right to buy (and obligates the writer to sell) the underlying security at the strike price, which is the predetermined price at which the option may be exercised. A put option grants to the holder the right to sell (and obligates the writer to buy) the underlying security at the strike price. The purchase price of an option is called the "premium." The potential loss to an option buyer is limited to the amount of the premium plus transaction costs. This will be the case if the option is held and not exercised prior to its expiration date. Generally, an option writer sells options with the goal of obtaining the premium paid by the option buyer, but that person could also seek to profit from an anticipated rise or decline in option prices. If an option sold by an option writer expires without being exercised, the writer retains the full amount of the premium. The option writer, however, has unlimited economic risk because its potential loss, except to the extent offset by the premium received when the option was written, is equal to the amount the option is "in- the-money" at the expiration date. A call option is in-the-money if the value of the underlying position exceeds the exercise price of the option. A put option is in-the-money if the exercise price of the option exceeds the value of the underlying position. Generally, any profit realized by an option buyer represents a loss for the option writer. The writing of an option will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by a fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4.

If a trading market, in particular options, were to become unavailable, investors in those options (such as the funds) would be unable to close out their positions until trading resumes, and they may be faced with substantial losses if the value of the underlying instrument moves adversely during that time. Even if the market were to remain available, there may be times when options prices will not maintain their customary or anticipated relationships to the prices of the underlying instruments and related instruments. Lack of investor interest, changes in volatility, or other factors or conditions might adversely affect the liquidity, efficiency, continuity, or even the orderliness of the market for particular options.

A fund bears the risk that its advisor will not accurately predict future market trends. If the advisor attempts to use an option as a hedge against, or as a substitute for, a portfolio investment, the fund will be exposed to the risk that the option will have or will develop imperfect or no correlation with the portfolio investment, which could cause substantial losses for the fund. Although hedging strategies involving options can reduce the risk of loss, they can also reduce the opportunity for gain or even result in losses by offsetting favorable price movements in other fund investments. Many options, in particular OTC options, are complex and often valued based on subjective factors. Improper valuations can result in increased cash payment requirements to counterparties or a loss of value to a fund.

OTC Swap Agreements. An over-the-counter (OTC) swap agreement, which is a type of derivative, is an agreement between two parties (counterparties) to exchange payments at specified dates (periodic payment dates) on the basis of a specified amount (notional amount) with the payments calculated with reference to a specified asset, reference rate, or index.

Examples of OTC swap agreements include, but are not limited to, interest rate swaps, credit default swaps, equity swaps, commodity swaps, foreign currency swaps, index swaps, excess return swaps, and total return swaps. Most OTC swap agreements provide that when the periodic payment dates for both parties are the same, payments are netted and only the net amount is paid to the counterparty entitled to receive the net payment. Consequently, a fund's current obligations (or rights) under an OTC swap agreement will generally be equal only to the net amount to be paid or received under the agreement, based on the relative values of the positions held by each counterparty. OTC swap agreements allow for a wide variety of transactions. For example, fixed rate payments may be exchanged for floating rate payments; U.S. dollar-denominated payments may be exchanged for payments denominated in a different currency; and payments tied to the price of one asset, reference rate, or index may be exchanged for payments tied to the price of another asset, reference rate, or index.

An OTC option on an OTC swap agreement, also called a "swaption," is an option that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to enter into a swap on a future date in exchange for paying a market-based "premium." A receiver swaption gives the owner the right to receive the total return of a specified asset, reference rate, or index. A payer swaption gives the owner the right to pay the total return of a specified asset, reference rate, or index. Swaptions also include options that allow an existing swap to be terminated or extended by one of the counterparties.

The use of OTC swap agreements by a fund entails certain risks, which may be different from, or possibly greater than, the risks associated with investing directly in the securities and other investments that are the referenced asset for the swap agreement. OTC swaps are highly specialized instruments that require investment techniques, risk analyses, and tax planning different from those associated with stocks, bonds, and other traditional investments. The use of an OTC swap requires an understanding not only of the referenced asset, reference rate, or index but also of the swap itself, without the benefit of observing the performance of the swap under all possible market conditions.

OTC swap agreements may be subject to liquidity risk, which exists when a particular swap is difficult to purchase or sell. If an OTC swap transaction is particularly large or if the relevant market is illiquid (as is the case with many OTC swaps), it may not be possible to initiate a transaction or liquidate a position at an advantageous time or price, which may result in significant losses. In addition, OTC swap transactions may be subject to a fund's limitation on investments in illiquid securities.

OTC swap agreements may be subject to pricing risk, which exists when a particular swap becomes extraordinarily expensive or inexpensive relative to historical prices or the prices of corresponding cash market instruments. Under certain market conditions, it may not be economically feasible to initiate a transaction or liquidate a position in time to avoid a loss or take advantage of an opportunity or to realize the intrinsic value of the OTC swap agreement.

Because certain OTC swap agreements have a leverage component, adverse changes in the value or level of the underlying asset, reference rate, or index can result in a loss substantially greater than the amount invested in the swap itself. Certain OTC swaps have the potential for unlimited loss, regardless of the size of the initial investment. A

leveraged OTC swap transaction will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by a fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4.

Like most other investments, OTC swap agreements are subject to the risk that the market value of the instrument will change in a way detrimental to a fund's interest. A fund bears the risk that its advisor will not accurately forecast future market trends or the values of assets, reference rates, indexes, or other economic factors in establishing OTC swap positions for the fund. If the advisor attempts to use an OTC swap as a hedge against, or as a substitute for, a portfolio investment, the fund will be exposed to the risk that the OTC swap will have or will develop imperfect or no correlation with the portfolio investment. This could cause substantial losses for the fund. Although hedging strategies involving OTC swap instruments can reduce the risk of loss, they can also reduce the opportunity for gain or even result in losses by offsetting favorable price movements in other fund investments. Many OTC swaps are complex and often valued subjectively. Improper valuations can result in increased cash payment requirements to counterparties or a loss of value to a fund.

The use of an OTC swap agreement also involves the risk that a loss may be sustained as a result of the insolvency or bankruptcy of the counterparty or the failure of the counterparty to make required payments or otherwise comply with the terms of the agreement. Additionally, the use of credit default swaps can result in losses if a fund's advisor does not correctly evaluate the creditworthiness of the issuer on which the credit swap is based.

Other Investment Companies. A fund may invest in other investment companies, including ETFs, non-exchange traded U.S. registered open-end investment companies (mutual funds), and closed-end investment companies, to the extent permitted by applicable law or SEC exemption. Under Section 12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act, a fund may invest up to 10% of its assets in shares of investment companies generally and up to 5% of its assets in any one investment company, as long as no investment represents more than 3% of the voting stock of an acquired investment company. In addition, no funds for which Vanguard acts as an advisor may, in the aggregate, own more than 10% of the voting stock of a closed-end investment company. SEC Rule 12d1-4 under the 1940 Act permits registered investment companies to invest in other registered investment companies beyond the limits in Section 12(d)(1), subject to certain conditions, including that funds with different investment advisors must enter into a fund of funds investment agreement. Rule 12d1-4 is also designed to limit the use of complex fund structures. Under Rule 12d1-4, an acquired fund is prohibited from purchasing or otherwise acquiring the securities of another investment company or private fund if, immediately after the purchase, the securities of investment companies and private funds owned by the acquired fund have an aggregate value in excess of 10% of the value of the acquired fund's total assets, subject to certain limited exceptions. Accordingly, to the extent a fund's shares are sold to other investment companies in reliance on Rule 12d1-4, the acquired fund will be limited in the amount it could invest in other investment companies and private funds. If a fund invests in other investment companies, shareholders will bear not only their proportionate share of the fund's expenses (including operating expenses and the fees of the advisor), but they also may indirectly bear similar expenses of the underlying investment companies. Certain investment companies, such as business development companies (BDCs), are more akin to operating companies and, as such, their expenses are not direct expenses paid by fund shareholders and are not used to calculate the fund's net asset value. SEC rules nevertheless require that any expenses incurred by a BDC be included in a fund's expense ratio as "Acquired Fund Fees and Expenses." The expense ratio of a fund that holds a BDC will thus overstate what the fund actually spends on portfolio management, administrative services, and other shareholder services by an amount equal to these Acquired Fund Fees and Expenses. The Acquired Fund Fees and Expenses are not included in a fund's financial statements, which provide a clearer picture of a fund's actual operating expenses. Shareholders would also be exposed to the risks associated not only with the investments of the fund but also with the portfolio investments of the underlying investment companies. Certain types of investment companies, such as closed-end investment companies, issue a fixed number of shares that typically trade on a stock exchange or over-the-counter at a premium or discount to their net asset value. Others are continuously offered at net asset value but also may be traded on the secondary market.

A fund may be limited to purchasing a particular share class of other investment companies (underlying funds). In certain cases, an investor may be able to purchase lower-cost shares of such underlying funds separately, and therefore be able to construct, and maintain over time, a similar portfolio of investments while incurring lower overall expenses.

Reliance on Service Providers, Data Providers, and Other Technology. Vanguard funds rely upon the performance of service providers to execute several key functions, which may include functions integral to a fund's operations. Failure by any service provider to carry out its obligations to a fund could disrupt the business of the fund and could have an adverse effect on the fund's performance. A fund's service providers' reliance on certain technology or information vendors (e.g., trading systems, investment analysis tools, benchmark analytics, and tax and accounting tools) could also adversely affect a fund and its shareholders. For example, a fund's investment advisor may use models and/or data with respect to potential investments for the fund. When models or data prove to be incorrect or incomplete, any decisions made in reliance upon such models or data expose a fund to potential risks.

Restricted and Illiquid Securities/Investments (including Private Placements). Illiquid securities/investments are investments that a fund reasonably expects cannot be sold or disposed of in current market conditions in seven calendar days or less without the sale or disposition significantly changing the market value of the investment. The SEC generally limits aggregate holdings of illiquid securities/investments by a mutual fund to 15% of its net assets (5% for money market funds). A fund may experience difficulty valuing and selling illiquid securities/investments and, in some cases, may be unable to value or sell certain illiquid securities for an indefinite period of time. Illiquid securities may include a wide variety of investments, such as (1) repurchase agreements maturing in more than seven days (unless the agreements have demand/redemption features), (2) OTC options contracts and certain other derivatives (including certain swap agreements), (3) fixed time deposits that are not subject to prepayment or do not provide for withdrawal penalties upon prepayment (other than overnight deposits), (4) certain loan interests and other direct debt instruments, (5) certain municipal lease obligations, (6) private equity investments, (7) commercial paper issued pursuant to Section 4(a)(2) of the 1933 Act, and (8) securities whose disposition is restricted under the federal securities laws. Illiquid securities/investments may include restricted, privately placed securities (such as private investments in public equity (PIPEs) or special purpose acquisition companies (SPACs)) that, under the federal securities laws, generally may be resold only to qualified institutional buyers. If a market develops for a restricted security held by a fund, it may be treated as a liquid security in accordance with guidelines approved by the board of trustees.

Tax Matters—Federal Tax Discussion. Discussion herein of U.S. federal income tax matters summarizes some of the important, generally applicable U.S. federal tax considerations relevant to investment in a fund based on the IRC, U.S. Treasury regulations, and other applicable authorities. These authorities are subject to change by legislative, administrative, or judicial action, possibly with retroactive effect. Each Fund has not requested and will not request an advance ruling from the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) as to the U.S. federal income tax matters discussed in this Statement of Additional Information. In some cases, a fund's tax position may be uncertain under current tax law and an adverse determination or future guidance by the IRS with respect to such a position could adversely affect the fund and its shareholders, including the fund's ability to continue to qualify as a regulated investment company or to continue to pursue its current investment strategy. A shareholder should consult his or her tax professional for information regarding the particular situation and the possible application of U.S. federal, state, local, foreign, and other taxes.

Tax Matters—Federal Tax Treatment of Derivatives, Hedging, and Related Transactions. A fund's transactions in derivative instruments (including, but not limited to, options, futures, forward contracts, and swap agreements), as well as any of the fund's hedging, short sale, securities loan, or similar transactions, may be subject to one or more special tax rules that accelerate income to the fund, defer losses to the fund, cause adjustments in the holding periods of the fund's securities, convert long-term capital gains into short-term capital gains, or convert short-term capital losses into long-term capital losses. These rules could therefore affect the amount, timing, and character of distributions to shareholders.

Because these and other tax rules applicable to these types of transactions are in some cases uncertain under current law, an adverse determination or future guidance by the IRS with respect to these rules (which determination or guidance could be retroactive) may affect whether a fund has made sufficient distributions, and otherwise satisfied the relevant requirements, to maintain its qualification as a regulated investment company and avoid a fund-level tax.

Tax Matters—Federal Tax Treatment of Exempt-Interest Dividends. If, at the end of each quarter of a fund's taxable year, at least 50% of the fund's total asset value consists of securities generating interest that is exempt from federal tax under IRC section 103(a), the fund may pay dividends that pass through to shareholders the tax-exempt character of exempt interest earned by the fund. These dividends generally are not taxable to fund shareholders for U.S. federal income tax purposes, but they may result in liability for the federal alternative minimum tax.

Tax Matters—Federal Tax Treatment of Futures Contracts. For federal income tax purposes, a fund generally must recognize, as of the end of each taxable year, any net unrealized gains and losses on certain futures contracts, as well as any gains and losses actually realized during the year. In these cases, any gain or loss recognized with respect to a futures contract is considered to be 60% long-term capital gain or loss and 40% short-term capital gain or loss, without regard to the holding period of the contract. Gains and losses on certain other futures contracts (primarily non-U.S. futures contracts) are not recognized until the contracts are closed and are treated as long-term or short-term, depending on the holding period of the contract. Sales of futures contracts that are intended to hedge against a change in the value of securities held by a fund may affect the holding period of such securities and, consequently, the nature of the gain or loss on such securities upon disposition. A fund may be required to defer the recognition of losses on one position, such as futures contracts, to the extent of any unrecognized gains on a related offsetting position held by the fund.

A fund will distribute to shareholders annually any net capital gains that have been recognized for federal income tax purposes on futures transactions. Such distributions will be combined with distributions of capital gains realized on the fund's other investments, and shareholders will be advised on the nature of the distributions.

Tax Matters—Market Discount or Premium. The price of a bond purchased after its original issuance may reflect market discount or premium. Depending on the particular circumstances, market discount may affect the tax character and amount of income required to be recognized by a fund holding the bond. In determining whether a bond is purchased with market discount, certain de minimis rules apply. Premium is generally amortizable over the remaining term of the bond. Depending on the type of bond, premium may affect the amount of income required to be recognized by a fund holding the bond and the fund's basis in the bond.

Tax Matters—Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduits. If a fund invests directly or indirectly, including through a REIT or other pass-through entity, in residual interests in real estate mortgage investment conduits (REMICs) or equity interests in taxable mortgage pools (TMPs), a portion of the fund's income that is attributable to a residual interest in a REMIC or an equity interest in a TMP (such portion referred to in the IRC as an "excess inclusion") will be subject to U.S. federal income tax in all events—including potentially at the fund level—under a notice issued by the IRS in October 2006 and U.S. Treasury regulations that have yet to be issued but may apply retroactively. This notice also provides, and the regulations are expected to provide, that excess inclusion income of a regulated investment company will be allocated to shareholders of the regulated investment company in proportion to the dividends received by such shareholders, with the same consequences as if the shareholders held the related interest directly. In general, excess inclusion income allocated to shareholders (1) cannot be offset by net operating losses (subject to a limited exception for certain thrift institutions); (2) will constitute unrelated business taxable income (UBTI) to entities (including a qualified pension plan, an individual retirement account, a 401(k) plan, a Keogh plan, or other tax-exempt entity) subject to tax on UBTI, thereby potentially requiring such an entity, which otherwise might not be required, to file a tax return and pay tax on such income; and (3) in the case of a non-U.S. investor, will not qualify for any reduction in U.S. federal withholding tax. A shareholder will be subject to U.S. federal income tax on such inclusions notwithstanding any exemption from such income tax otherwise available under the IRC. As a result, a fund investing in such interests may not be suitable for charitable remainder trusts. See "Tax Matters—Tax-Exempt Investors."

Tax Matters—Tax Considerations for Non-U.S. Investors. U.S. withholding and estate taxes and certain U.S. tax reporting requirements may apply to any investments made by non-U.S. investors in Vanguard funds.

Tax Matters—Tax-Exempt Investors. Income of a fund that would be UBTI if earned directly by a tax-exempt entity will not generally be attributed as UBTI to a tax-exempt shareholder of the fund. Notwithstanding this "blocking" effect, a tax- exempt shareholder could realize UBTI by virtue of its investment in a fund if shares in the fund constitute debt-financed property in the hands of the tax-exempt shareholder within the meaning of IRC Section 514(b).

A tax-exempt shareholder may also recognize UBTI if a fund recognizes "excess inclusion income" derived from direct or indirect investments in residual interests in REMICs or equity interests in TMPs. See "Tax Matters—Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduits."

In addition, special tax consequences apply to charitable remainder trusts that invest in a fund that invests directly or indirectly in residual interests in REMICs or equity interests in TMPs. Charitable remainder trusts and other tax-exempt investors are urged to consult their tax advisors concerning the consequences of investing in a fund.

Tender Option Bond Programs. Tender option bond programs are a type of municipal bond structured product, which is taxed as a partnership for federal income tax purposes. These programs provide for tax-exempt income at a variable rate. In such programs, underlying securities in the form of high-quality longer-term municipal bonds or preferred shares issued by a tax-exempt bond fund are held inside a trust and varying economic interests in the underlying securities are created and sold to investors. One class of investors earns interest at a rate based on current short-term tax-exempt interest rates

and may tender its holdings at par to the program sponsor at agreed-upon intervals. This class is an eligible security for municipal money market fund investments. A second class of investors has a residual income interest (earning any net income produced by the underlying securities that exceeds the variable income paid to the other class of investors) and bears the risk that the underlying bonds or preferred shares of the tax-exempt bond fund will decline in value because of changes in market interest rates. These holdings will generally underperform the fixed-rate municipal securities market in a rising interest rate environment. The Funds do not invest in this second class of investors. Under the terms of such programs, both investor classes bear the risk of loss that would result from a payment default on the underlying bonds or preferred shares as well as from other potential, yet remote, credit or structural events. If a tender option bond program would fail to qualify as a partnership for federal income tax purposes or if the IRS were to disagree with the tax allocation mechanisms or treatment of the credit enhancement used in a program, a Fund invested in that program could realize more taxable ordinary income than it otherwise would have.

Time Deposits. Time deposits are subject to the same risks that pertain to domestic issuers of money market instruments, most notably credit risk (and, to a lesser extent, income risk, market risk, and liquidity risk). Additionally, time deposits of foreign branches of U.S. banks and foreign branches of foreign banks may be subject to certain sovereign risks. One such risk is the possibility that a sovereign country might prevent capital, in the form of U.S. dollars, from flowing across its borders. Other risks include adverse political and economic developments, the extent and quality of government regulation of financial markets and institutions, the imposition of foreign withholding taxes, and expropriation or nationalization of foreign issuers. However, time deposits of such issuers will undergo the same type of credit analysis as domestic issuers in which a Vanguard fund invests and will have at least the same financial strength as the domestic issuers approved for the fund.

Variable-Rate Demand-Preferred Securities. The Fund may purchase certain variable-rate demand-preferred securities (VRDPs) issued by closed-end municipal bond funds, which, in turn, invest primarily in portfolios of tax-exempt municipal bonds. The Fund may invest in securities issued by single-state or national closed-end municipal bond funds. VRDPs are issued by closed-end funds to leverage returns for common shareholders. Under the 1940 Act, a closed-end fund that issues preferred shares must maintain an asset coverage ratio of at least 200% at all times in order to issue preferred shares. It is anticipated that the interest on the VRDPs will be exempt from federal income tax and, with respect to any such securities issued by single-state municipal bond funds, exempt from the applicable state's income tax. The VRDPs will pay a variable dividend rate, determined weekly, typically through a remarketing process, and include a demand feature that provides a fund with a contractual right to tender the securities to a liquidity provider. The Fund could lose money if the liquidity provider fails to honor its obligation, becomes insolvent, or files for bankruptcy. The Fund has no right to put the securities back to the closed-end municipal bond funds or demand payment or redemption directly from the closed-end municipal bond funds. Further, the VRDPs are not freely transferable, and therefore the Fund may only transfer the securities to another investor in compliance with certain exemptions under the 1933 Act, including Rule 144A.

A fund's purchase of VRDPs issued by closed-end municipal bond funds is subject to the restrictions set forth under the heading "Other Investment Companies."

When-Issued, Delayed-Delivery, and Forward-Commitment Transactions. When-issued, delayed-delivery, and forward-commitment transactions involve a commitment to purchase or sell specific securities at a predetermined price or yield in which payment and delivery take place after the customary settlement period for that type of security. Typically, no interest accrues to the purchaser until the security is delivered. When purchasing securities pursuant to one of these transactions, payment for the securities is not required until the delivery date. However, the purchaser assumes the rights and risks of ownership, including the risks of price and yield fluctuations and the risk that the security will not be issued as anticipated. When a fund has sold a security pursuant to one of these transactions, the fund does not participate in further gains or losses with respect to the security. If the other party to a delayed-delivery transaction fails to deliver or pay for the securities, the fund could miss a favorable price or yield opportunity or suffer a loss. A fund may renegotiate a when- issued or forward-commitment transaction and may sell the underlying securities before delivery, which may result in capital gains or losses for the fund. When-issued, delayed-delivery, and forward-commitment transactions will not be considered to constitute the issuance, by a fund, of a "senior security," as that term is defined in Section 18(g) of the 1940 Act, and therefore such transaction will not be subject to the 300% asset coverage requirement otherwise applicable to borrowings by the fund, if the fund complies with Rule 18f-4.

SHARE PRICE

A Fund's share price, also known as net asset value (NAV), is calculated as of the close of regular trading on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE), generally 4 p.m., Eastern time, on each day that the NYSE is open for business (a business day). In the rare event the NYSE experiences unanticipated disruptions and is unavailable at the close of the trading day, the Fund reserves the right to treat such day as a business day and calculate NAVs as of the close of regular trading on the Nasdaq (or another alternate exchange if the Nasdaq is unavailable, as determined at Vanguard's discretion), generally 4 p.m., Eastern time. The NAV per share is computed by dividing the total assets, minus liabilities, allocated to each share class by the number of Fund shares outstanding for that class. On U.S. holidays or other days when the NYSE is closed, the NAV is not calculated, and the Fund does not sell or redeem shares. However, on those days the value of the Fund's assets may be affected to the extent that the Fund holds securities that change in value on those days (such as foreign securities that trade on foreign markets that are open).

The NYSE typically observes the following holidays: New Year's Day; Martin Luther King, Jr., Day; Presidents' Day (Washington's Birthday); Good Friday; Memorial Day; Juneteenth National Independence Day; Independence Day; Labor Day; Thanksgiving Day; and Christmas Day. Although each Fund expects the same holidays to be observed in the future, the NYSE may modify its holiday schedule or hours of operation at any time.

MANAGEMENT OF THE FUND

Vanguard

The Fund is part of the Vanguard group of investment companies, which consists of over 200 funds. Each fund is a series of a Delaware statutory trust. The funds obtain virtually all of their corporate management, administrative, and distribution services through the trusts' jointly owned subsidiary, Vanguard. Vanguard may contract with certain third- party service providers to assist Vanguard in providing certain administrative and/or accounting services with respect to the funds, subject to Vanguard's oversight. Vanguard also provides investment advisory services to certain Vanguard funds. All of these services are provided at Vanguard's total cost of operations pursuant to the Fifth Amended and Restated Funds' Service Agreement (the Agreement).

Vanguard employs a supporting staff of management and administrative personnel needed to provide the requisite services to the funds and also furnishes the funds with necessary office space, furnishings, and equipment. Each fund (other than a fund of funds) pays its share of Vanguard's total expenses, which are allocated among the funds under methods approved by the board of trustees of each fund. In addition, each fund bears its own direct expenses, such as legal, auditing, and custodial fees.

The funds' officers are also employees of Vanguard.

Vanguard, Vanguard Marketing Corporation (VMC), the funds, and the funds' advisors have adopted codes of ethics designed to prevent employees who may have access to nonpublic information about the trading activities of the funds (access persons) from profiting from that information. The codes of ethics permit access persons to invest in securities for their own accounts, including securities that may be held by a fund, but place substantive and procedural restrictions on the trading activities of access persons. For example, the codes of ethics require that access persons receive advance approval for most securities trades to ensure that there is no conflict with the trading activities of the funds.

Vanguard was established and operates under the Agreement. The Agreement provides that each Vanguard fund may be called upon to invest up to 0.40% of its net assets in Vanguard. The amounts that each fund has invested are adjusted from time to time in order to maintain the proportionate relationship between each fund's relative net assets and its contribution to Vanguard's capital.

As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF has not commenced operations and therefore had not contributed capital to Vanguard.

Management. Corporate management and administrative services include (1) executive staff, (2) accounting and financial, (3) legal and regulatory, (4) shareholder account maintenance, (5) monitoring and control of custodian relationships, (6) shareholder reporting, and (7) review and evaluation of advisory and other services provided to the funds by third parties.

Distribution. Vanguard Marketing Corporation, 100 Vanguard Boulevard, Malvern, PA 19355, a wholly owned subsidiary of Vanguard, is the principal underwriter for the funds and in that capacity performs and finances marketing, promotional, and distribution activities (collectively, marketing and distribution activities) that are primarily intended to result in the sale of the funds' shares. VMC offers shares of each fund for sale on a continuous basis and will use all reasonable efforts in connection with the distribution of shares of the funds. VMC performs marketing and distribution activities in accordance with the conditions of a 1981 SEC exemptive order that permits the Vanguard funds to internalize and jointly finance the marketing, promotion, and distribution of their shares. The funds' trustees review and approve the marketing and distribution expenses incurred by the funds, including the nature and cost of the activities and the desirability of each fund's continued participation in the joint arrangement.

To ensure that each fund's participation in the joint arrangement falls within a reasonable range of fairness, each fund contributes to VMC's marketing and distribution expenses in accordance with an SEC-approved formula. Under that formula, one half of the marketing and distribution expenses are allocated among the funds based upon their relative net assets. The remaining half of those expenses is allocated among the funds based upon each fund's sales for the preceding 24 months relative to the total sales of the funds as a group, provided, however, that no fund's aggregate quarterly rate of contribution for marketing and distribution expenses shall exceed 125% of the average marketing and distribution expense rate for Vanguard and that no fund shall incur annual marketing and distribution expenses in excess of 0.20% of its average month-end net assets. Each fund's contribution to these marketing and distribution expenses helps to maintain and enhance the attractiveness and viability of the Vanguard complex as a whole, which benefits all of the funds and their shareholders.

VMC's principal marketing and distribution expenses are for advertising, promotional materials, and marketing personnel. Other marketing and distribution activities of an administrative nature that VMC undertakes on behalf of the funds may include, but are not limited to:

⬛Conducting or publishing Vanguard-generated research and analysis concerning the funds, other investments, the financial markets, or the economy.

⬛Providing views, opinions, advice, or commentary concerning the funds, other investments, the financial markets, or the economy.

⬛Providing analytical, statistical, performance, or other information concerning the funds, other investments, the financial markets, or the economy.

⬛Providing administrative services in connection with investments in the funds or other investments, including, but not limited to, shareholder services, recordkeeping services, and educational services.

⬛Providing products or services that assist investors or financial service providers (as defined below) in the investment decision-making process.

VMC performs most marketing and distribution activities itself. Some activities may be conducted by third parties pursuant to shared marketing arrangements under which VMC agrees to share the costs and performance of marketing and distribution activities in concert with a financial service provider. Financial service providers include, but are not limited to, investment advisors, broker-dealers, financial planners, financial consultants, banks, and insurance companies. Under these cost- and performance-sharing arrangements, VMC may pay or reimburse a financial service provider (or a third party it retains) for marketing and distribution activities that VMC would otherwise perform. VMC's cost- and performance- sharing arrangements may be established in connection with Vanguard investment products or services offered or provided to or through the financial service providers.

VMC's arrangements for shared marketing and distribution activities may vary among financial service providers, and its payments or reimbursements to financial service providers in connection with shared marketing and distribution activities may be significant. VMC, as a matter of policy, does not pay asset-based fees, sales-based fees, or account-based fees to financial service providers in connection with its marketing and distribution activities for the Vanguard funds. VMC does make fixed dollar payments to financial service providers when sponsoring, jointly sponsoring, financially supporting, or participating in conferences, programs, seminars, presentations, meetings, or other events involving fund shareholders, financial service providers, or others concerning the funds, other investments, the financial markets, or the economy, such as industry conferences, prospecting trips, due diligence visits, training or education meetings, and sales presentations. VMC also makes fixed dollar payments to financial service providers for data regarding funds, such as statistical information regarding sales of fund shares. In addition, VMC makes fixed dollar payments for expenses associated with financial service providers' use of Vanguard's funds including, but not limited to, the use of funds in

Officers and Trustees

Each Vanguard fund is governed by the board of trustees of its trust and a single set of officers. Consistent with the board's corporate governance principles, the trustees believe that their primary responsibility is oversight of the management of each fund for the benefit of its shareholders, not day-to-day management. The trustees set broad policies for the funds; select investment advisors; monitor fund operations, regulatory compliance, performance, and costs; nominate and select new trustees; and elect fund officers. Vanguard manages the day-to-day operations of the funds under the direction of the board of trustees.

The trustees play an active role, as a full board and at the committee level, in overseeing risk management for the funds. The trustees delegate the day-to-day risk management of the funds to various groups, including portfolio review, investment management, risk management, compliance, legal, fund accounting, and fund financial services. These groups provide the trustees with regular reports regarding investment, valuation, liquidity, and compliance, as well as the risks associated with each. The trustees also oversee risk management for the funds through regular interactions with the funds' internal and external auditors.

The full board participates in the funds' risk oversight, in part, through the Vanguard funds' compliance program, which covers the following broad areas of compliance: investment and other operations; recordkeeping; valuation and pricing; communications and disclosure; reporting and accounting; oversight of service providers; fund governance; and codes of ethics, insider trading controls, and protection of nonpublic information. The program seeks to identify and assess risk through various methods, including through regular interdisciplinary communications between compliance professionals and business personnel who participate on a daily basis in risk management on behalf of the funds. The funds' chief compliance officer regularly provides reports to the board in writing and in person.

The audit committee of the board, which is composed of F. Joseph Loughrey, Mark Loughridge, Sarah Bloom Raskin, and Peter F. Volanakis, each of whom is an independent trustee, oversees management of financial risks and controls. The audit committee serves as the channel of communication between the independent auditors of the funds and the board with respect to financial statements and financial reporting processes, systems of internal control, and the audit process. Vanguard's head of internal audit reports directly to the audit committee and provides reports to the committee in writing and in person on a regular basis. Although the audit committee is responsible for overseeing the management of financial risks, the entire board is regularly informed of these risks through committee reports.

All of the trustees bring to each fund's board a wealth of executive leadership experience derived from their service as executives (in many cases chief executive officers), board members, and leaders of diverse public operating companies, academic institutions, and other organizations. In determining whether an individual is qualified to serve as a trustee of the funds, the board considers a wide variety of information about the trustee, and multiple factors contribute to the board's decision. Each trustee is determined to have the experience, skills, and attributes necessary to serve the funds and their shareholders because each trustee demonstrates an exceptional ability to consider complex business and financial matters, evaluate the relative importance and priority of issues, make decisions, and contribute effectively to the deliberations of the board. The board also considers the individual experience of each trustee and determines that the trustee's professional experience, education, and background contribute to the diversity of perspectives on the board. The business acumen, experience, and objective thinking of the trustees are considered invaluable assets for Vanguard management and, ultimately, the Vanguard funds' shareholders. The specific roles and experience of each board member that factor into this determination are presented on the following pages. The mailing address of the trustees and officers is P.O. Box 876, Valley Forge, PA 19482.

		Vanguard	Principal Occupation(s)	Number of
	Position(s)	Vanguard	Principal Occupation(s)	Vanguard
	Position(s)	Funds'	During the Past Five Years,	Funds
	Held With	Trustee/	Outside Directorships,	Overseen by
Name, Year of Birth	Funds	Officer Since	and Other Experience	Trustee/Officer
Interested Trustee1
Mortimer J. Buckley	Chairman of the	January 2018	Chairman of the board (2019–present) of Vanguard and	xx
(1969)	Board, Chief		of each of the investment companies served by
	Executive		Vanguard; chief executive officer (2018–present) of
	Officer, and		Vanguard; chief executive officer, president, and
	President		trustee (2018–present) of each of the investment
			companies served by Vanguard; president and director
			(2017–present) of Vanguard; and president
			(2018–present) of Vanguard Marketing Corporation.
			Chief investment officer (2013–2017), managing
			director (2002–2017), head of the Retail Investor Group
			(2006–2012), and chief information officer (2001–2006)
			of Vanguard. Trustee and vice chair of The Shipley
			School. Member of the board of governors of the
			Investment Company Institute and of FINRA.

1 Mr. Buckley is considered an "interested person" as defined in the 1940 Act because he is an officer of the Trust.

Independent
Tara Bunch	Trustee	November 2021	Head of Global Operations at Airbnb (2020–present).	xx
(1962)			Vice President of AppleCare (2012–2020). Member of
			the board of Out & Equal (2002–2006), the University of
			California, Berkeley School of Engineering (2020–
			present), and Santa Clara University's School of
			Business (2018–present).
Emerson U. Fullwood	Trustee	January 2008	Executive chief staff and marketing officer for North	xx
(1948)			America and corporate vice president (retired 2008) of
			Xerox Corporation (document management products
			and services). Former president of the Worldwide
			Channels Group, Latin America, and Worldwide
			Customer Service and executive chief staff officer of
			Developing Markets of Xerox. Executive in residence
			and 2009–2010 Distinguished Minett Professor at the
			Rochester Institute of Technology. Member of the
			board of directors of the University of Rochester
			Medical Center, the Monroe Community College
			Foundation, the United Way of Rochester, North
			Carolina A&T University, Roberts Wesleyan College,
			and the Rochester Philharmonic Orchestra. Trustee of
			the University of Rochester.
F. Joseph Loughrey	Trustee	October 2009	President and chief operating officer (retired 2009) and	xx
(1949)			vice chairman of the board (2008–2009) of Cummins
			Inc. (industrial machinery). Chairman of the board of
			Hillenbrand, Inc. (specialized consumer services).
			Director of the V Foundation. Member of the advisory
			council for the College of Arts and Letters at the
			University of Notre Dame. Chairman of the board of
			Saint Anselm College.
Mark Loughridge	Lead	March 2012	Senior vice president and chief financial officer (retired	xx
(1953)	Independent		2013) of IBM (information technology services).
	Trustee		Fiduciary member of IBM's Retirement Plan
			Committee (2004–2013), senior vice president and
			general manager (2002–2004) of IBM Global
			Financing, vice president and controller (1998–2002) of
			IBM, and a variety of other prior management roles at
			IBM. Member of the Council on Chicago Booth.

			Principal Occupation(s)	Number of
	Position(s)	Vanguard	Principal Occupation(s)	Vanguard
	Position(s)	Vanguard	During the Past Five Years,	Funds
	Held With	Funds' Trustee/	Outside Directorships,	Overseen by
Name, Year of Birth	Funds	Officer Since	and Other Experience	Trustee/Officer
Scott C. Malpass	Trustee	March 2012	Adjunct professor of finance at the University of Notre	xx
(1962)			Dame (2020–present). Chief investment officer and
			vice president of the University of Notre Dame (retired
			2020). Assistant professor of finance at the Mendoza
			College of Business, University of Notre Dame (retired
			2020), and member of the Notre Dame 403(b)
			Investment Committee. Member of the board of
			Catholic Investment Services, Inc. (investment
			advisors), the board of superintendence of the Institute
			for the Works of Religion, and the board of directors of
			Paxos Trust Company (finance).
Deanna Mulligan	Trustee	January 2018	Chief executive officer of Purposeful (2021–present).	xx
(1963)			Board chair (2020), chief executive officer (2011–
			2020), and president (2010–2019) of The Guardian Life
			Insurance Company of America. Chief operating officer
			(2010–2011) and executive vice president (2008–2010)
			of Individual Life and Disability of The Guardian Life
			Insurance Company of America. Member of the board
			of the Economic Club of New York. Trustee of the
			Partnership for New York City (business leadership),
			the Chief Executives for Corporate Purpose, and the
			New York-Presbyterian Hospital.

André F. Perold (1952)

Sarah Bloom Raskin (1961)

Trustee

December 2004

Trustee

January 2018

George Gund Professor of Finance and Banking, Emeritus at the Harvard Business School (retired 2011). Chief investment officer and co-managing partner of HighVista Strategies LLC (private investment firm). Board member (2018–present) of RIT Capital Partners (investment firm); investment committee member of Partners Health Care System.

Deputy secretary (2014–2017) of the United States Department of the Treasury. Governor (2010–2014) of the Federal Reserve Board. Commissioner (2007–2010) of financial regulation for the State of Maryland. Colin W. Brown Distinguished Professor of the Practice (2021–present), Professor (2020–present), Distinguished Fellow of the Global Financial Markets Center (2020–present), and Rubenstein Fellow (2017– 2020) of Duke University; trustee

(2017–present) of Amherst College; member of the Amherst College Investment Committee (2019–present); and member of the Regenerative Crisis Response Committee (2020–present).

David Thomas (1956)

Peter F. Volanakis (1955)

Trustee	July 2021	President of Morehouse College (2018–present).
		Professor of Business Administration Emeritus at
		Harvard University (2017–2018) and Dean (2011–
		2016) and Professor of Management at Georgetown
		University, McDonough School of Business
		(2016–2017). Director of DTE Energy Company (2013–
		present). Trustee of Common Fund
		(2019–present).
Trustee	July 2009	President and chief operating officer (retired 2010) of
		Corning Incorporated (communications equipment) and
		director of Corning Incorporated (2000–2010) and Dow
		Corning (2001–2010). Director (2012) of SPX
		Corporation (multi-industry manufacturing). Overseer of
		the Amos Tuck School of Business Administration,
		Dartmouth College (2001–2013). Member of the BMW
		Group Mobility Council.

			Principal Occupation(s)	Number of
	Position(s)	Vanguard	Principal Occupation(s)	Vanguard
	Position(s)	Vanguard	During the Past Five Years,	Funds
	Held With	Funds' Trustee/	Outside Directorships,	Overseen by
Name, Year of Birth	Funds	Officer Since	and Other Experience	Trustee/Officer
Executive Officers
Jacqueline Angell	Chief	November 2022	Principal of Vanguard. Chief compliance officer	xx
(1974)	Compliance		(November 2022–present) of Vanguard and of each of
	Officer		the investment companies served by Vanguard. Chief
			compliance officer (2018–2022) and deputy chief
			compliance officer (2017–2019) of State Street.
Christine M. Buchanan	Chief Financial	November 2017	Principal of Vanguard. Chief financial officer	xx
(1970)	Officer		(2021–present) and treasurer (2017–2021) of each of
			the investment companies served by Vanguard.
			Partner (2005–2017) at KPMG (audit, tax, and advisory
			services).
David Cermak	Finance Director	October 2019	Principal of Vanguard. Finance director (2019–present)	xx
(1960)			of each of the investment companies served by
			Vanguard. Managing director and head (2017–present)
			of Vanguard Investments Singapore. Managing director
			and head (2017–2019) of Vanguard Investments Hong
			Kong. Representative director and head (2014–2017)
			of Vanguard Investments Japan.

John Galloway (1973)

Ashley Grim (1984)

Peter Mahoney (1974)

Anne E. Robinson (1970)

Michael Rollings (1963)

Investment	September 2020	Principal of Vanguard. Investment stewardship officer	xx
Stewardship		(2020–present) of each of the investment companies
Officer		served by Vanguard. Head of Investor Advocacy
Officer		(2020–present) and head of Marketing Strategy and
		(2020–present) and head of Marketing Strategy and
		Planning (2017–2020) at Vanguard. Special Assistant
		to the President of the United States (2015).
Treasurer	February 2022	Treasurer (February 2022–present) of each of the	xx
		investment companies served by Vanguard. Fund
		transfer agent controller (2019–2022) and director of
		Audit Services (2017–2019) at Vanguard. Senior
		manager (2006–2017) at PriceWaterhouseCoopers
		(audit and assurance, consulting, and tax services).
Controller	May 2015	Principal of Vanguard. Controller (2015–present) of	xx
		each of the investment companies served by Vanguard.
		Head of International Fund Services (2008– 2014) at
		Vanguard.
Secretary	September 2016	General counsel (2016–present) of Vanguard.	xx
		Secretary (2016–present) of Vanguard and of each of
		the investment companies served by Vanguard.
		Managing director (2016–present) of Vanguard.
		Managing director and general counsel of Global Cards
		and Consumer Services (2014–2016) at Citigroup.
		Counsel (2003–2014) at American Express.
		Non-executive director of the board of National Grid
		(energy).
Finance Director	February 2017	Finance director (2017–present) and treasurer (2017)	xx
		of each of the investment companies served by
		Vanguard. Managing director (2016–present) of
		Vanguard. Chief financial officer (2016–present) of
		Vanguard. Director (2016–present) of Vanguard
		Marketing Corporation. Executive vice president and
		chief financial officer (2006–2016) of MassMutual
		Financial Group.

All but one of the trustees are independent. The independent trustees designate a lead independent trustee. The lead independent trustee is a spokesperson and principal point of contact for the independent trustees and is responsible for coordinating the activities of the independent trustees, including calling regular executive sessions of the independent trustees; developing the agenda of each meeting together with the chairman; and chairing the meetings of the independent trustees. The lead independent trustee also chairs the meetings of the audit, compensation, and nominating committees. The board also has two investment committees, which consist of independent trustees and the sole interested trustee.

The independent trustees appoint the chairman of the board. The roles of chairman of the board and chief executive officer currently are held by the same person; as a result, the chairman of the board is an "interested" trustee. The independent trustees generally believe that the Vanguard funds' chief executive officer is best qualified to serve as chairman and that fund shareholders benefit from this leadership structure through accountability and strong day-to-day leadership.

Board Committees: The Trust's board has the following committees:

⬛Audit Committee: This committee oversees the accounting and financial reporting policies, the systems of internal controls, and the independent audits of each fund. The following independent trustees serve as members of the committee: Mr. Loughrey, Mr. Loughridge, Ms. Raskin, and Mr. Volanakis.

⬛Compensation Committee: This committee oversees the compensation programs established by each fund for the benefit of its trustees. All independent trustees serve as members of the committee.

⬛Investment Committees: These committees assist the board in its oversight of investment advisors to the funds and in the review and evaluation of materials relating to the board's consideration of investment advisory agreements with the funds. Each trustee serves on one of two investment committees.

⬛Nominating Committee: This committee nominates candidates for election to the board of trustees of each fund. The committee also has the authority to recommend the removal of any trustee. All independent trustees serve as members

of the committee.

The Nominating Committee will consider shareholder recommendations for trustee nominees. Shareholders may send recommendations to Mr. Loughridge, chairman of the committee.

Trustee Compensation

The same individuals serve as trustees of all Vanguard funds and each fund pays a proportionate share of the trustees' compensation. Vanguard funds also employ their officers on a shared basis; however, officers are compensated by Vanguard, not the funds.

Independent Trustees. The funds compensate their independent trustees (i.e., the ones who are not also officers of the funds) in two ways:

⬛The independent trustees receive an annual fee for their service to the funds, which is subject to reduction based on absences from scheduled board meetings.

⬛The independent trustees are reimbursed for the travel and other expenses that they incur in attending board meetings.

"Interested" Trustee. Mr. Buckley serves as a trustee, but is not paid in this capacity. He is, however, paid in his role as an officer of Vanguard.

Compensation Table. The following table provides compensation details for each of the trustees. We list the amounts paid as compensation and accrued as retirement benefits by the Funds for each trustee. In addition, the table shows the total amount of benefits that we expect each trustee to receive from all Vanguard funds upon retirement and the total amount of compensation paid to each trustee by all Vanguard funds.

VANGUARD WELLINGTON FUND

TRUSTEES' COMPENSATION TABLE

	Aggregate	Pension or Retirement	Accrued Annual	Total Compensation
	Compensation	Benefits Accrued as Part	Accrued Annual	From All Vanguard
	From	of	Retirement Benefit at	Funds Paid to
Trustee	the Fund1	the Fund's Expenses1	January 1, 2022	Trustees2
Mortimer J. Buckley	—	—	—	—
Tara Bunch³	—	—	—	$ 94,286
Emerson U. Fullwood	—	—	—	330,000
Amy Gutmann⁴	—	—	—	330,000
F. Joseph Loughrey	—	—	—	350,000
Mark Loughridge	—	—	—	400,000
Scott C. Malpass	—	—	—	330,000
Deanna Mulligan	—	—	—	330,000
André F. Perold	—	—	—	330,000
Sarah Bloom Raskin	—	—	—	350,000
David A. Thomas⁵	—	—	—	188,571
Peter F. Volanakis	—	—	—	350,000

1As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF had not commenced operations.

2The amounts reported in this column reflect the total compensation paid to each trustee for his or her service as trustee of 217 Vanguard funds for the 2021 calendar year.

3Ms. Bunch became a member of the Funds' board effective November 18, 2021.

4Ms. Gutmann retired from the Funds' board effective February 2022.

5Mr. Thomas became a member of the Funds' board effective July 22, 2021.

Ownership of Fund Shares

All current trustees allocate their investments among the various Vanguard funds based on their own investment needs. The following table shows each trustee's ownership of shares of the Fund and of all Vanguard funds served by the trustee as of December 31, 2021. As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF had not commenced operations.

VANGUARD WELLINGTON FUND

		Dollar Range of	Aggregate Dollar Range
		Dollar Range of	of Vanguard Fund
		Fund Shares	Shares
Vanguard Fund	Trustee	Owned by Trustee	Owned by Trustee
Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF	Mortimer J. Buckley	—	—
	Tara Bunch	—	—
	Emerson U. Fullwood	—	—
	F. Joseph Loughrey	—	—
	Mark Loughridge	—	—
	Scott C. Malpass	—	—
	Deanna Mulligan	—	—
	André F. Perold	—	—
	Sarah Bloom Raskin	—	—
	David Thomas	—	—
	Peter F. Volanakis	—	—

Portfolio Holdings Disclosure Policies and Procedures

Introduction

Vanguard and the boards of trustees of the Vanguard funds (the Boards) have adopted Portfolio Holdings Disclosure Policies and Procedures (Policies and Procedures) to govern the disclosure of the portfolio holdings of each Vanguard fund. Vanguard and the Boards considered each of the circumstances under which Vanguard fund portfolio holdings may be disclosed to different categories of persons under the Policies and Procedures. Vanguard and the Boards also considered actual and potential material conflicts that could arise in such circumstances between the interests of Vanguard fund shareholders, on the one hand, and those of the fund's investment advisor, distributor, or any affiliated person of the fund, its investment advisor, or its distributor, on the other. After giving due consideration to such matters and after the exercise of their fiduciary duties and reasonable business judgment, Vanguard and the Boards determined that the Vanguard funds have a legitimate business purpose for disclosing portfolio holdings to the persons described in each of the circumstances set forth in the Policies and Procedures and that the Policies and Procedures are reasonably designed to ensure that disclosure of portfolio holdings and information about portfolio holdings is in the best interests of fund shareholders and appropriately addresses the potential for material conflicts of interest.

The Boards exercise continuing oversight of the disclosure of Vanguard fund portfolio holdings by (1) overseeing the implementation and enforcement of the Policies and Procedures, the Code of Ethics, and the Policies and Procedures Designed to Prevent the Misuse of Inside Information (collectively, the portfolio holdings governing policies) by the chief compliance officer of Vanguard and the Vanguard funds; (2) considering reports and recommendations by the chief compliance officer concerning any material compliance matters (as defined in Rule 38a-1 under the 1940 Act and Rule 206(4)-7 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940) that may arise in connection with any portfolio holdings governing policies; and (3) considering whether to approve or ratify any amendment to any portfolio holdings governing policies.

Vanguard and the Boards reserve the right to amend the Policies and Procedures at any time and from time to time without prior notice at their sole discretion. For purposes of the Policies and Procedures, the term "portfolio holdings" means the equity and debt securities (e.g., stocks and bonds) held by a Vanguard fund and does not mean the cash investments, derivatives, and other investment positions (collectively, other investment positions) held by the fund.

Online Disclosure of Ten Largest Stock Holdings

Each actively managed Vanguard fund generally will seek to disclose the fund's ten largest stock portfolio holdings and the percentage of the fund's total assets that each of these holdings represents as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter (quarter-end ten largest stock holdings with weightings) online at vanguard.com, in the "Portfolio" section of the fund's Portfolio & Management page, 15 calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter. Each Vanguard index fund generally will seek to disclose the fund's ten largest stock portfolio holdings and the percentage of the fund's total assets that each of these holdings represents as of the end of the most recent month (month-end ten largest stock holdings with weightings) online at vanguard.com, in the "Portfolio" section of the fund's Portfolio & Management page, 15 calendar days after the end of the month. In addition, Vanguard funds generally will seek to disclose the fund's ten largest stock portfolio holdings and the aggregate percentage of the fund's total assets (and, for balanced funds, the aggregate percentage of the fund's equity securities) that these holdings represent as of the end of the most recent month (month- end ten largest stock holdings) online at vanguard.com, in the "Portfolio" section of the fund's Portfolio & Management page, 10 business days after the end of the month. Together, the quarter-end and month-end ten largest stock holdings are referred to as the ten largest stock holdings. Online disclosure of the ten largest stock holdings is made to all categories of persons, including individual investors, institutional investors, intermediaries, third-party service providers, rating and ranking organizations, affiliated persons of a Vanguard fund, and all other persons.

Online Disclosure of Complete Portfolio Holdings

Each actively managed Vanguard fund, unless otherwise stated, generally will seek to disclose the fund's complete portfolio holdings as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter online at vanguard.com 30 calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter. Each Vanguard fund relying on Rule 6c-11 under the 1040 Act generally will seek to disclose complete portfolio holdings, including other investment positions, at the beginning of each business day. These portfolio holdings, including other investment positions, will be disclosed online at vanguard.com. In accordance with Rule 2a-7 under the 1940 Act, each of the Vanguard money market funds will disclose the fund's complete portfolio holdings as of the last business day of the prior month online at vanguard.com no later than the fifth business day of the current month. The complete portfolio holdings information for money market funds will remain available online for at least six months after the initial posting. Vanguard Market Neutral Fund and Vanguard Alternative Strategies Fund generally will seek to disclose the Fund's complete portfolio holdings as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter online at vanguard.com 60 calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter. Each Vanguard fund relying on exemptive relief from the

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) permitting the operation of actively-managed ETFs, other than those Vanguard index funds relying on Rule 6c-11, generally will seek to disclose the fund's complete portfolio holdings as of the end of the most recent month online at vanguard.com, in the "Portfolio" section of the fund's Portfolio & Management page, 15 calendar days after the end of the month. Online disclosure of complete portfolio holdings is made to all categories of persons, including individual investors, institutional investors, intermediaries, third-party service providers, rating and ranking organizations, affiliated persons of a Vanguard fund, and all other persons. Vanguard will review complete portfolio holdings before disclosure is made and, except with respect to the complete portfolio holdings of the Vanguard money market funds, may withhold any portion of the fund's complete portfolio holdings from disclosure when deemed to be in the best interests of the fund after consultation with a Vanguard fund's investment advisor.

Disclosure of Complete Portfolio Holdings to Service Providers Subject to Confidentiality and Trading Restrictions

Vanguard, for legitimate business purposes, may disclose Vanguard fund complete portfolio holdings at times it deems necessary and appropriate to rating and ranking organizations; financial printers; proxy voting service providers; pricing information vendors; issuers of guaranteed investment contracts for stable value portfolios; third parties that deliver analytical, statistical, or consulting services; and other third parties that provide services (collectively, Service Providers) to Vanguard, Vanguard subsidiaries, and/or the Vanguard funds. Disclosure of complete portfolio holdings to a Service Provider is conditioned on the Service Provider being subject to a written agreement imposing a duty of confidentiality, including a duty not to trade on the basis of any material nonpublic information.

The frequency with which complete portfolio holdings may be disclosed to a Service Provider, and the length of the lag, if any, between the date of the information and the date on which the information is disclosed to the Service Provider, is determined based on the facts and circumstances, including, without limitation, the nature of the portfolio holdings information to be disclosed, the risk of harm to the funds and their shareholders, and the legitimate business purposes served by such disclosure. The frequency of disclosure to a Service Provider varies and may be as frequent as daily, with no lag. Disclosure of Vanguard fund complete portfolio holdings by Vanguard to a Service Provider must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal in Vanguard's Portfolio Review Department or Legal and Compliance Division. Any disclosure of Vanguard fund complete portfolio holdings to a Service Provider as previously described may also include a list of the other investment positions that make up the fund, such as cash investments and derivatives.

Currently, Vanguard discloses complete portfolio holdings to the following Service Providers as part of ongoing arrangements that serve legitimate business purposes: Abel/Noser Corporation; Advisor Software, Inc.; Alcom Printing Group, Inc.; Apple Press, L.C.; Bloomberg L.P.; Brilliant Graphics, Inc.; Broadridge Financial Solutions, Inc.; Brown Brothers Harriman & Co.; Charles River Systems, Inc.; FactSet Research Systems Inc.; Innovation Printing & Communications; Institutional Shareholder Services, Inc.; Intelligencer Printing Company; Investment Technology Group, Inc.; Lipper, Inc.; Markit WSO Corporation; McMunn Associates, Inc.; Reuters America Inc.; R.R. Donnelley, Inc.; State Street Bank and Trust Company; and Trade Informatics LLC.

Disclosure of Complete Portfolio Holdings to Vanguard Affiliates and Certain Fiduciaries Subject to Confidentiality and Trading Restrictions

Vanguard may disclose complete portfolio holdings between and among the following persons (collectively, Affiliates and Fiduciaries) for legitimate business purposes within the scope of their official duties and responsibilities, subject to such persons' continuing legal duty of confidentiality and legal duty not to trade on the basis of any material nonpublic information, as such duties are imposed under the Code of Ethics, the Policies and Procedures Designed to Prevent the Misuse of Inside Information, by agreement, or under applicable laws, rules, and regulations: (1) persons who are subject to the Code of Ethics or the Policies and Procedures Designed to Prevent the Misuse of Inside Information; (2) an investment advisor, distributor, administrator, transfer agent, or custodian to a Vanguard fund; (3) an accounting firm, an auditing firm, or outside legal counsel retained by Vanguard, a Vanguard subsidiary, or a Vanguard fund; (4) an investment advisor to whom complete portfolio holdings are disclosed for due diligence purposes when the advisor is in merger or acquisition talks with a Vanguard fund's current advisor; and (5) a newly hired investment advisor or sub- advisor to whom complete portfolio holdings are disclosed prior to the time it commences its duties.

The frequency with which complete portfolio holdings may be disclosed between and among Affiliates and Fiduciaries, and the length of the lag, if any, between the date of the information and the date on which the information is disclosed between and among the Affiliates and Fiduciaries, is determined by such Affiliates and Fiduciaries based on the facts and circumstances, including, without limitation, the nature of the portfolio holdings information to be disclosed, the risk of harm to the funds and their shareholders, and the legitimate business purposes served by such disclosure. The frequency of disclosure between and among Affiliates and Fiduciaries varies and may be as frequent as daily, with no

lag. Any disclosure of Vanguard fund complete portfolio holdings to any Affiliates and Fiduciaries as previously described may also include a list of the other investment positions that make up the fund, such as cash investments and derivatives. Disclosure of Vanguard fund complete portfolio holdings or other investment positions by Vanguard, VMC, or a Vanguard fund to Affiliates and Fiduciaries must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal of Vanguard.

Currently, Vanguard discloses complete portfolio holdings to the following Affiliates and Fiduciaries as part of ongoing arrangements that serve legitimate business purposes: Vanguard and each investment advisor, custodian, and independent registered public accounting firm identified in each fund's Statement of Additional Information.

Disclosure of Portfolio Holdings to Trading Counterparties in the Normal Course of Managing a Fund's Assets

An investment advisor, administrator, or custodian for a Vanguard fund may, for legitimate business purposes within the scope of its official duties and responsibilities, disclose portfolio holdings (whether partial portfolio holdings or complete portfolio holdings) and other investment positions that make up the fund to any trading counterparty, including one or more broker-dealers or banks, during the course of, or in connection with, normal day-to-day securities and derivatives transactions with or through such trading counterparties subject to the counterparty's legal obligation not to use or disclose material nonpublic information concerning the fund's portfolio holdings, other investment positions, securities transactions, or derivatives transactions without the consent of the fund or its agents. The Vanguard funds have not given their consent to any such use or disclosure and no person or agent of Vanguard is authorized to give such consent except as approved in writing by the Boards of the Vanguard funds. Disclosure of portfolio holdings or other investment positions by Vanguard to broker-dealers must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal of Vanguard.

In addition to the disclosures described below to Authorized Participants, a Vanguard fund investment advisor or administrator may also disclose portfolio holdings information to other current or prospective fund shareholders in connection with the dissemination of information necessary for transactions in Creation Units (as defined below) or other large transactions with a Vanguard fund. Such shareholders are typically Authorized Participants or other financial institutions that have been authorized by VMC to purchase and redeem large blocks of shares (Creation Units), but may also include market makers and other institutional market participants and entities to whom a Vanguard fund advisor or administrator may provide information in connection with transactions in a Vanguard fund.

Disclosure of Nonmaterial Information

The Policies and Procedures permit Vanguard fund officers, Vanguard fund portfolio managers, and other Vanguard representatives (collectively, Approved Vanguard Representatives) to disclose any views, opinions, judgments, advice, or commentary, or any analytical, statistical, performance, or other information, in connection with or relating to a Vanguard fund or its portfolio holdings and/or other investment positions (collectively, commentary and analysis) or any changes in the portfolio holdings of a Vanguard fund that occurred after the end of the most recent calendar quarter (recent portfolio changes) to any person if (1) such disclosure serves a legitimate business purpose, (2) such disclosure does not effectively result in the disclosure of the complete portfolio holdings of any Vanguard fund (which can be disclosed only in accordance with the Policies and Procedures), and (3) such information does not constitute material nonpublic information. Disclosure of commentary and analysis or recent portfolio changes by Vanguard, VMC, or a Vanguard fund must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal of Vanguard.

An Approved Vanguard Representative must make a good faith determination whether the information constitutes material nonpublic information, which involves an assessment of the particular facts and circumstances. Vanguard believes that in most cases recent portfolio changes that involve a few or even several securities in a diversified portfolio or commentary and analysis would be immaterial and would not convey any advantage to a recipient in making an investment decision concerning a Vanguard fund. Nonexclusive examples of commentary and analysis about a Vanguard fund include (1) the allocation of the fund's portfolio holdings and other investment positions among various asset classes, sectors, industries, and countries; (2) the characteristics of the stock and bond components of the fund's portfolio holdings and other investment positions; (3) the attribution of fund returns by asset class, sector, industry, and country; and (4) the volatility characteristics of the fund. Approved Vanguard Representatives may, at their sole

discretion, deny any request for information made by any person, and may do so for any reason or for no reason. Approved Vanguard Representatives include, for purposes of the Policies and Procedures, persons employed by or associated with Vanguard or a subsidiary of Vanguard who have been authorized by Vanguard's Portfolio Review Department to disclose recent portfolio changes and/or commentary and analysis in accordance with the Policies and Procedures.

Disclosure of Portfolio Holdings, Including Other Investment Positions, in Accordance with Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) Exemptive Orders and Rule 6c-11

Vanguard's Enterprise Financial Services unit may disclose to the National Securities Clearing Corporation (NSCC), Authorized Participants, and other market makers the daily portfolio composition files (PCFs) that identify a basket of specified securities that may overlap with the actual or expected portfolio holdings of the Vanguard funds that offer a class of shares known as Vanguard ETF Shares (ETF Funds). Each Vanguard fund relying on Rule 6c-11 under the 1940 Act generally will seek to disclose complete portfolio holdings, including other investment positions, at the beginning of each business day. These portfolio holdings, including other investment positions, will be disclosed online at vanguard.com in the "Portfolio" section of a fund's Portfolio & Management page. The disclosure of PCFs and portfolio holdings, including other investment positions, will be in accordance with the terms and conditions of related exemptive orders (Vanguard ETF Exemptive Orders) issued by the SEC or Rule 6c-11 under the 1940 Act, as described in this section.

Unlike the conventional classes of shares issued by ETF Funds, the ETF Shares are listed for trading on a national securities exchange. Each ETF Fund issues and redeems ETF Shares in large blocks, known as "Creation Units." To purchase or redeem a Creation Unit, an investor must be an "Authorized Participant" or the investor must purchase or redeem through a broker-dealer that is an Authorized Participant. An Authorized Participant is a participant in the Depository Trust Company (DTC) that has executed a "Participant Agreement" with VMC. Each ETF Fund issues Creation Units in exchange for a "portfolio deposit" consisting of a basket of specified securities (Deposit Securities) and a cash payment (Balancing Amount). Each ETF Fund also redeems Creation Units in kind; an investor who tenders a Creation Unit will receive, as redemption proceeds, a basket of specified securities together with a Balancing Amount.

In connection with the creation and redemption process, and in accordance with the terms and conditions of the Vanguard ETF Exemptive Orders, Vanguard makes available to the NSCC (a clearing agency registered with the SEC and affiliated with the DTC), for dissemination to NSCC participants on each business day prior to the opening of trading on the listing exchange, a PCF containing a list of the names and the required number of shares of each Deposit Security for each ETF Fund. In addition, the listing exchange disseminates (1) continuously throughout the trading day, through the facilities of the Consolidated Tape Association, the market value of an ETF Share; and (2) every 15 seconds throughout the trading day, a calculation of the estimated NAV of an ETF Share (expected to be accurate to within a few basis points). Comparing these two figures allows an investor to determine whether, and to what extent, ETF Shares are selling at a premium or at a discount to NAV. ETF Shares are listed on the exchange and traded on the secondary market in the same manner as other equity securities. The price of ETF Shares trading on the secondary market is based on a current bid/offer market.

In addition to making PCFs available to the NSCC, as previously described, Vanguard's Enterprise Financial Services unit may disclose the PCF for any ETF Fund to any person, or online at vanguard.com to all categories of persons, if (1) such disclosure serves a legitimate business purpose and (2) such disclosure does not constitute material nonpublic information. Vanguard's Enterprise Financial Services unit must make a good faith determination whether the PCF for any ETF Fund constitutes material nonpublic information, which involves an assessment of the particular facts and circumstances. Vanguard believes that in most cases the PCF for any ETF Fund would be immaterial and would not convey any advantage to the recipient in making an investment decision concerning the ETF Fund, if sufficient time has passed between the date of the PCF and the date on which the PCF is disclosed. Vanguard's Enterprise Financial Services unit may, at its sole discretion, determine whether to deny any request for the PCF for any ETF Fund made by any person, and may do so for any reason or for no reason. Disclosure of a PCF must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal in Vanguard's Enterprise Financial Services unit.

Disclosure of Portfolio Holdings Related Information to the Issuer of a Security for Legitimate Business Purposes

Vanguard, at its sole discretion, may disclose portfolio holdings information concerning a security held by one or more Vanguard funds to the issuer of such security if the issuer presents, to the satisfaction of Vanguard's Enterprise Financial Services unit, convincing evidence that the issuer has a legitimate business purpose for such information. Disclosure of this information to an issuer is conditioned on the issuer being subject to a written agreement imposing a duty of confidentiality, including a duty not to trade on the basis of any material nonpublic information. The frequency with which portfolio holdings information concerning a security may be disclosed to the issuer of such security, and the length of the lag, if any, between the date of the information and the date on which the information is disclosed to the issuer, is determined based on the facts and circumstances, including, without limitation, the nature of the portfolio holdings information to be disclosed, the risk of harm to the funds and their shareholders, and the legitimate business purposes served by such disclosure. The frequency of disclosure to an issuer cannot be determined in advance of a specific request and will vary based upon the particular facts and circumstances and the legitimate business purposes, but in unusual situations could be as frequent as daily, with no lag. Disclosure of portfolio holdings information concerning a security held by one or more Vanguard funds to the issuer of such security must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal in Vanguard's Portfolio Review Department or Legal and Compliance Division.

Disclosure of Portfolio Holdings as Required by Applicable Law

Vanguard fund portfolio holdings (whether partial portfolio holdings or complete portfolio holdings) and other investment positions that make up a fund shall be disclosed to any person as required by applicable laws, rules, and regulations. Examples of such required disclosure include, but are not limited to, disclosure of Vanguard fund portfolio holdings (1) in a filing or submission with the SEC or another regulatory body, (2) in connection with seeking recovery on defaulted bonds in a federal bankruptcy case, (3) in connection with a lawsuit, or (4) as required by court order. Disclosure of portfolio holdings or other investment positions by Vanguard, VMC, or a Vanguard fund as required by applicable laws, rules, and regulations must be authorized by a Vanguard fund officer or a Principal of Vanguard.

Prohibitions on Disclosure of Portfolio Holdings

No person is authorized to disclose Vanguard fund portfolio holdings or other investment positions (whether online at vanguard.com, in writing, by fax, by email, orally, or by other means) except in accordance with the Policies and Procedures. In addition, no person is authorized to make disclosure pursuant to the Policies and Procedures if such disclosure is otherwise unlawful under the antifraud provisions of the federal securities laws (as defined in Rule 38a-1 under the 1940 Act). Furthermore, Vanguard's management, at its sole discretion, may determine not to disclose portfolio holdings or other investment positions that make up a Vanguard fund to any person who would otherwise be eligible to receive such information under the Policies and Procedures, or may determine to make such disclosures publicly as provided by the Policies and Procedures.

Prohibitions on Receipt of Compensation or Other Consideration

The Policies and Procedures prohibit a Vanguard fund, its investment advisor, and any other person or entity from paying or receiving any compensation or other consideration of any type for the purpose of obtaining disclosure of Vanguard fund portfolio holdings or other investment positions. "Consideration" includes any agreement to maintain assets in the fund or in other investment companies or accounts managed by the investment advisor or by any affiliated person of the investment advisor.

INVESTMENT ADVISORY AND OTHER SERVICES

The Fund receives all investment advisory services from Vanguard, through its Fixed Income Group. These services are provided by an experienced investment advisory staff employed directly by Vanguard. The compensation and other expenses of the advisory staff are allocated among the funds utilizing these services.

As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Ultra-Short Bond ETF had not commenced operations and therefore had not incurred any advisory expenses.

1. Other Accounts Managed

The following table provides information relating to the other accounts managed by the portfolio managers of the Fund as of the fiscal year ended XX (unless otherwise noted):

					Total assets in
				No. of accounts with	accounts with
		No. of		No. of accounts with	performance-
		No. of		performance-based	based
Portfolio Manager		accounts	Total assets	fees	fees
	Registered investment		XX	XX	XX
Stephen M. McFee	Registered investment	XX
Stephen M. McFee	companies	XX
	Other pooled investment	XX	XX	XX	XX
	vehicles
	Other accounts	XX	XX	XX	XX

2. Material Conflicts of Interest

At Vanguard, individual portfolio managers may manage multiple accounts for multiple clients. In addition to mutual funds, these accounts may include separate accounts, collective trusts, and offshore funds. Managing multiple funds or accounts may give rise to potential conflicts of interest including, for example, conflicts among investment strategies and conflicts in the allocation of investment opportunities. Vanguard manages potential conflicts between funds or accounts through allocation policies and procedures, internal review processes, and oversight by trustees and independent third parties. Vanguard has developed trade allocation procedures and controls to ensure that no one client, regardless of type, is intentionally favored at the expense of another. Allocation policies are designed to address potential conflicts in situations where two or more funds or accounts participate in investment decisions involving the same securities.

3. Description of Compensation

All Vanguard portfolio managers are Vanguard employees. This section describes the compensation of the Vanguard employees who manage Vanguard mutual funds. As of XX, a Vanguard portfolio manager's compensation generally consists of base salary, bonus, and payments under Vanguard's long-term incentive compensation program. In addition, portfolio managers are eligible for the standard retirement benefits and health and welfare benefits available to all Vanguard employees. Also, certain portfolio managers may be eligible for additional retirement benefits under several supplemental retirement plans that Vanguard adopted in the 1980s to restore dollar-for-dollar the benefits of management employees that had been cut back solely as a result of tax law changes. These plans are structured to provide the same retirement benefits as the standard retirement plans.

In the case of portfolio managers responsible for managing multiple Vanguard funds or accounts, the method used to determine their compensation is the same for all funds and investment accounts. A portfolio manager's base salary is determined by the manager's experience and performance in the role, taking into account the ongoing compensation benchmark analyses performed by Vanguard's Human Resources Department. A portfolio manager's base salary is generally a fixed amount that may change as a result of an annual review, upon assumption of new duties, or when a market adjustment of the position occurs.

A portfolio manager's bonus is determined by a number of factors. One factor is gross, pre-tax performance of a fund relative to expectations for how the fund should have performed, given the fund's investment objective, policies, strategies, and limitations, and the market environment during the measurement period. This performance factor is not based on the amount of assets held in any individual fund's portfolio. The performance factor depends on how successfully the portfolio manager outperforms these expectations and maintains the risk parameters of the Fund generally over a three-year period. For the Municipal Money Market Fund, the performance factor depends on how successfully the portfolio manager maintains the credit quality of the Fund and, consequently, how the Fund performs relative to the expectations described above over a one-year period. For the Tax-Exempt Bond Index Fund, the performance factor depends on how closely the portfolio manager tracks the Fund's benchmark index over a one-year

period. Additional factors include the portfolio manager's contributions to the investment management functions within the sub-asset class, contributions to the development of other investment professionals and supporting staff, and overall contributions to strategic planning and decisions for the investment group. The target bonus is expressed as a percentage of base salary. The actual bonus paid may be more or less than the target bonus, based on how well the manager satisfies the objectives previously described. The bonus is paid on an annual basis.

Under the long-term incentive compensation program, all full-time employees receive a payment from Vanguard's long- term incentive compensation plan based on their years of service, job level, and, if applicable, management responsibilities. Each year, Vanguard's independent directors determine the amount of the long-term incentive compensation award for that year based on the investment performance of the Vanguard funds relative to competitors and Vanguard's operating efficiencies in providing services to the Vanguard funds.

4. Ownership of Securities

As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF had not commenced operations, and therefore the portfolio managers did not own any shares of the Fund.

Duration and Termination of Investment Advisory Agreement

Vanguard provides investment advisory services to the Funds pursuant to the terms of the Fifth Amended and Restated Funds' Service Agreement. This agreement will continue in full force and effect until terminated or amended by mutual agreement of the Vanguard funds and Vanguard.

PORTFOLIO TRANSACTIONS

The advisor decides which securities to buy and sell on behalf of the Fund and then selects the brokers or dealers that will execute the trades on an agency basis or the dealers with whom the trades will be effected on a principal basis. For each trade, the advisor must select a broker-dealer that it believes will provide "best execution." Best execution does not necessarily mean paying the lowest spread or commission rate available. In seeking best execution, the SEC has said that an advisor should consider the full range of a broker-dealer's services. The factors considered by the advisor in seeking best execution include, but are not limited to, the broker-dealer's execution capability, clearance and settlement services, commission rate, trading expertise, willingness and ability to commit capital, ability to provide anonymity, financial responsibility, reputation and integrity, responsiveness, access to underwritten offerings and secondary markets, and access to company management, as well as the value of any research provided by the broker-dealer. In assessing which broker-dealer can provide best execution for a particular trade, the advisor also may consider the timing and size of the order and available liquidity and current market conditions. Subject to applicable legal requirements, the advisor may select a broker based partly on brokerage or research services provided to the advisor and its clients, including the Fund. The advisor may cause the Fund to pay a higher commission than other brokers would charge if the advisor determines in good faith that the amount of the commission is reasonable in relation to the value of services provided. The advisor also may receive brokerage or research services from broker-dealers that are provided at no charge in recognition of the volume of trades directed to the broker. To the extent research services or products may be a factor in selecting brokers, services and products may include written research reports analyzing performance or securities, discussions with research analysts, meetings with corporate executives to obtain oral reports on company performance, market data, and other products and services that will assist the advisor in its investment decision-making process. The research services provided by brokers through which the Fund effects securities transactions may be used by the advisor in servicing all of its accounts, and some of the services may not be used by the advisor in connection with the Fund.

The types of securities in which the Fund invests are generally purchased and sold in principal transactions, meaning that the Fund normally purchases securities directly from the issuer or a primary market-maker acting as principal for the securities on a net basis. Explicit brokerage commissions are not paid on these transactions, although purchases of new issues from underwriters of securities typically include a commission or concession paid by the issuer to the underwriter, and purchases from dealers serving as market-makers typically include a dealer's markup (i.e., a spread between the bid and the asked prices). Brokerage commissions will also be paid in connection with opening and closing out futures positions.

As previously explained, the types of securities that the Fund purchases do not normally involve the payment of explicit brokerage commissions. If any such brokerage commissions are paid, however, the advisor will evaluate their reasonableness by considering: (1) the historical commission rates; (2) the rates that other institutional investors are paying, based upon publicly available information; (3) the rates quoted by brokers and dealers; (4) the size of a particular transaction, in terms of the number of shares, the dollar amount, and the number of clients involved; (5) the complexity of a particular transaction in terms of both execution and settlement; (6) the level and type of business done with a particular firm over a period of time; and (7) the extent to which the broker or dealer has capital at risk in the transaction.

As of the date of this SAI Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF has not commenced operations, and therefore has not incurred any brokerage commissions.

Some securities that are considered for investment by the Fund may also be appropriate for other Vanguard funds or for other clients served by the advisors. If such securities are compatible with the investment policies of the Fund and one or more of the advisor's other clients, and are considered for purchase or sale at or about the same time, then transactions in such securities may be aggregated by the advisor, and the purchased securities or sale proceeds may be allocated among the participating Vanguard funds and the other participating clients of the advisor in a manner deemed equitable by the advisor. Although there may be no specified formula for allocating such transactions, the allocation methods used, and the results of such allocations, will be subject to periodic review by the Fund's board of trustees.

The ability of Vanguard and external advisors to purchase or dispose of certain fund investments, or to exercise rights on behalf of the Fund, is or may be restricted or impaired because of limitations imposed by law, regulation, or by certain regulators or issuers. As a result, Vanguard and external advisors on behalf of certain Funds are currently, and other Funds may in the future be required to limit purchases, sell existing investments, or otherwise limit the exercise of shareholder rights by the Fund, including voting rights. These ownership restrictions and limitations can impact the Fund's performance. For index funds, this impact generally takes the form of tracking error, which can arise when a fund is not able to acquire its desired amount of a security. For actively managed funds, this impact can result, for example, in missed investment opportunities otherwise desired by a fund's investment advisor. If the Fund is required to limit its investment in a particular issuer, then the Fund may seek to obtain regulatory or corporate consents or ownership waivers. Other options the Fund may pursue include seeking to obtain economic exposure to that issuer through alternative means, such as through a derivative, which may be more costly than owning securities of the issuer directly, or through investment in a wholly-owned subsidiary. In the event a derivative, such as a swap, is used as an alternative means of exposure, Vanguard and external advisors on behalf of a Fund are not able to guarantee the availability of derivatives necessary to allow economic exposure to the security, sector, or industry. This limited availability may have additional impacts to Fund performance. Additionally, use of derivatives as an alternative means of exposure subjects a Fund to derivative-related risks.

As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF has not commenced operations, and therefore the Fund has not held securities of its "regular brokers or dealers," as that term is defined in Rule 10b-1 of the 1940 Act.

PROXY VOTING

I. Proxy Voting Policies

Each Vanguard fund advised by Vanguard retains the authority to vote proxies received with respect to the shares of equity securities held in a portfolio advised by Vanguard. The Board of Trustees of the Vanguard-advised funds (the Board) has adopted proxy voting procedures and guidelines to govern proxy voting for each portfolio retaining proxy voting authority, which are summarized in Appendix A.

Vanguard has entered into agreements with various state, federal, and non-U.S. regulators and with certain issuers that limit the amount of shares that the funds may vote at their discretion for particular securities. For these securities, the funds are able to vote a limited portion of the shares at their discretion. Any additional shares generally are voted in the same proportion as votes cast by the issuer's entire shareholder base (i.e., mirror voted), or the fund is not permitted to vote such shares. Further, the Board has adopted policies that will result in certain funds mirror voting a higher proportion of the shares they own in a regulated issuer in order to permit certain other funds (generally advised by managers not affiliated with Vanguard) to mirror vote none, or a lower proportion, of their shares in such regulated issuer.

II. Securities Lending

There may be occasions when Vanguard needs to restrict lending of and/or recall securities that are out on loan in order to vote the full position at a shareholder meeting. For the funds managed by Vanguard, Vanguard has processes to monitor securities on loan and to evaluate any circumstances that may require it to restrict and/or attempt to recall the security based on the criteria set forth in Appendix A.

To obtain a free copy of a report that details how the funds voted the proxies relating to the portfolio securities held by the funds for the prior 12-month period ended June 30, log on to vanguard.com or visit the SEC's website at sec.gov.

INFORMATION ABOUT THE ETF SHARE CLASS

The Fund offers and issues an exchange-traded class of shares called ETF Shares. The Fund issues and redeems Shares in large blocks, known as "Creation Units."

To purchase or redeem a Creation Unit, you must be an Authorized Participant or you must transact through a broker that is an Authorized Participant. An Authorized Participant is a participant in the Depository Trust Company (DTC) that has executed a Participant Agreement with Vanguard Marketing Corporation, the Fund's Distributor (the Distributor). For a current list of Authorized Participants, contact the Distributor.

Investors that are not Authorized Participants must hold ETF Shares in a brokerage account. As with any stock traded on an exchange through a broker, purchases and sales of ETF Shares will be subject to usual and customary brokerage commissions.

The Fund issues Creation Units in kind in exchange for a basket of securities that are part of—or soon to be part of— its target index (Deposit Securities). The Fund also redeems Creation Units in kind; an investor who tenders a Creation Unit will receive, as redemption proceeds, a basket of securities that are part of the Fund's portfolio holdings (Redemption Securities). As part of any creation or redemption transaction, the investor will either pay or receive some cash in addition to the securities, as described more fully on the following pages. The Fund reserves the right to issue Creation Units for cash, rather than in kind.

Exchange Listing and Trading

The ETF Shares have been approved for listing on a national securities exchange and will trade on the exchange at market prices that may differ from net asset value (NAV). There can be no assurance that, in the future, ETF Shares will continue to meet all of the exchange's listing requirements. The exchange will institute procedures to delist the Fund's ETF Shares if the Fund's ETF Shares do not continuously comply with the exchange's listing rules. The exchange will also delist the Fund's ETF Shares upon termination of the ETF share class.

The exchange disseminates, through the facilities of the Consolidated Tape Association, an updated "indicative optimized portfolio value" (IOPV) for the Fund as calculated by an information provider. The Fund is not involved with or responsible for the calculation or dissemination of the IOPVs, and it makes no warranty as to the accuracy of the IOPVs. An IOPV for the Fund's ETF Shares is disseminated every 15 seconds during regular exchange trading hours. An IOPV has a securities value component and a cash component. The IOPV is designed as an estimate of the ETF Fund's NAV at a particular point in time, but it is only an estimate and should not be viewed as the actual NAV, which is calculated once each day.

Book Entry Only System

ETF Shares issued by the Fund are registered in the name of the DTC or its nominee, Cede & Co., and are deposited with, or on behalf of, the DTC. The DTC is a limited-purpose trust company that was created to hold securities of its participants (DTC Participants) and to facilitate the clearance and settlement of transactions among them through electronic book-entry changes in their accounts, thereby eliminating the need for physical movement of securities certificates. DTC Participants include securities brokers and dealers, banks, trust companies, clearing corporations, and certain other organizations. The DTC is a subsidiary of the Depository Trust and Clearing Corporation (DTCC), which is owned by certain participants of the DTCC's subsidiaries, including the DTC. Access to the DTC system is also available to others such as banks, brokers, dealers, and trust companies that clear through or maintain a custodial relationship with a DTC Participant, either directly or indirectly (Indirect Participants).

Beneficial ownership of ETF Shares is limited to DTC Participants, Indirect Participants, and persons holding interests through DTC Participants and Indirect Participants. Ownership of beneficial interests in ETF Shares (owners of such

beneficial interests are referred to herein as Beneficial Owners) is shown on, and the transfer of ownership is effected only through, records maintained by the DTC (with respect to DTC Participants) and on the records of DTC Participants (with respect to Indirect Participants and Beneficial Owners that are not DTC Participants). Beneficial Owners will receive from, or through, the DTC Participant a written confirmation relating to their purchase of ETF Shares. The laws of some jurisdictions may require that certain purchasers of securities take physical delivery of such securities. Such laws may impair the ability of certain investors to acquire beneficial interests in ETF Shares.

The Fund recognizes the DTC or its nominee as the record owner of all ETF Shares for all purposes. Beneficial Owners of ETF Shares are not entitled to have ETF Shares registered in their names and will not receive or be entitled to physical delivery of share certificates. Each Beneficial Owner must rely on the procedures of the DTC and any DTC Participant and/or Indirect Participant through which such Beneficial Owner holds its interests to exercise any rights of a holder of ETF Shares.

Conveyance of all notices, statements, and other communications to Beneficial Owners is effected as follows. The DTC will make available to the Fund, upon request and for a fee, a listing of the ETF Shares of the Fund held by each DTC Participant. The Fund shall obtain from each DTC Participant the number of Beneficial Owners holding ETF Shares, directly or indirectly, through the DTC Participant. The Fund shall provide each DTC Participant with copies of such notice, statement, or other communication, in form, in number, and at such place as the DTC Participant may reasonably request, in order that these communications may be transmitted by the DTC Participant, directly or indirectly, to the Beneficial Owners. In addition, the Fund shall pay to each DTC Participant a fair and reasonable amount as reimbursement for the expenses attendant to such transmittal, subject to applicable statutory and regulatory requirements.

Share distributions shall be made to the DTC or its nominee as the registered holder of all ETF Shares. The DTC or its nominee, upon receipt of any such distributions, shall immediately credit the DTC Participants' accounts with payments in amounts proportionate to their respective beneficial interests in ETF Shares of the appropriate Fund as shown on the records of the DTC or its nominee. Payments by DTC Participants to Indirect Participants and Beneficial Owners of ETF Shares held through such DTC Participants will be governed by standing instructions and customary practices, as is now the case with securities held for the accounts of customers in bearer form or registered in a "street name," and will be the responsibility of such DTC Participants.

The Fund has no responsibility or liability for any aspects of the records relating to or notices to Beneficial Owners; for payments made on account of beneficial ownership interests in such ETF Shares; for maintenance, supervision, or review of any records relating to such beneficial ownership interests; or for any other aspect of the relationship between the DTC and DTC Participants or the relationship between such DTC Participants and the Indirect Participants and Beneficial Owners owning through such DTC Participants.

The DTC may determine to discontinue providing its service with respect to ETF Shares at any time by giving reasonable notice to the Fund and discharging its responsibilities with respect thereto under applicable law. Under such circumstances, the Fund shall take action either to find a replacement for the DTC to perform its functions at a comparable cost or, if such replacement is unavailable, to issue and deliver printed certificates representing ownership of ETF Shares, unless the Fund makes other arrangements with respect thereto satisfactory to the exchange.

Purchase and Issuance of ETF Shares in Creation Units

The Fund issues and sells ETF Shares only in Creation Units on a continuous basis through the Distributor, without a sales load, at its NAV next determined after receipt of an order in proper form on any business day. The Fund does not issue fractional Creation Units.

A business day is any day on which the NYSE is open for business. As of the date of this Statement of Additional Information, the NYSE observes the following U.S. holidays: New Year's Day; Martin Luther King, Jr., Day; Presidents' Day (Washington's Birthday); Good Friday; Memorial Day; Juneteenth National Independence Day; Independence Day; Labor Day; Thanksgiving Day; and Christmas Day.

Fund Deposit. The consideration for purchase of a Creation Unit from the Fund generally consists of an in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of securities (Deposit Securities) and an amount of cash (Cash Component) consisting of a purchase balancing amount and a transaction fee (both described in the following paragraphs). Together, the Deposit Securities and the Cash Component constitute the fund deposit.

The purchase balancing amount is an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of a Creation Unit and the market value of the Deposit Securities (Deposit Amount). It ensures that the NAV of a fund deposit (not including the transaction fee) is identical to the NAV of the Creation Unit it is used to purchase. If the purchase balancing amount is a positive number (i.e., the NAV per Creation Unit exceeds the market value of the Deposit Securities), then that amount will be paid by the purchaser to the Fund in cash. If the purchase balancing amount is a negative number (i.e., the NAV per Creation Unit is less than the market value of the Deposit Securities), then that amount will be paid by the Fund to the purchaser in cash (except as offset by the transaction fee).

Vanguard, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (NSCC), makes available after the close of each business day a list of the names and the number of shares of each Deposit Security to be included in the next business day's fund deposit for the Fund (subject to possible amendment or correction). The Fund reserves the right to accept a nonconforming fund deposit.

The identity and number of shares of the Deposit Securities required for a fund deposit may change from one day to another to reflect rebalancing adjustments, corporate actions, and interest payments on underlying bonds or to respond to adjustments to the weighting or composition of the component securities of the relevant target index.

In addition, the Fund reserves the right to permit or require the substitution of an amount of cash—referred to as "cash in lieu"—to be added to the Cash Component to replace any Deposit Security. This might occur, for example, if a Deposit Security is not available in sufficient quantity for delivery, is not eligible for transfer through the applicable clearance and settlement system, or is not eligible for trading by an Authorized Participant or the investor for which an Authorized Participant is acting. Trading costs incurred by the Fund in connection with the purchase of Deposit Securities with cash- in-lieu amounts will be an expense of the Fund. However, Vanguard may adjust the transaction fee to protect existing shareholders from this expense.

All questions as to the number of shares of each security in the Deposit Securities and the validity, form, eligibility, and acceptance for deposit of any securities to be delivered shall be determined by the appropriate Fund, and the Fund's determination shall be final and binding.

Procedures for Purchasing Creation Units. To initiate a purchase order for a Creation Unit, an Authorized Participant must submit an order in proper form to the Distributor and such order must be received by the Distributor prior to the closing time of regular trading of the NYSE (Closing Time) (ordinarily 4 p.m., Eastern time) to receive that day's NAV. Authorized Participants must transmit orders using a transmission method acceptable to the Distributor pursuant to procedures set forth in the Participant Agreement.

Neither the Trust, the Fund, the Distributor, nor any affiliated party will be liable to an investor who is unable to submit a purchase order by Closing Time, even if the problem is the responsibility of one of those parties (e.g., the Distributor's phone or email systems were not operating properly).

If you are not an Authorized Participant, you must place your purchase order in an acceptable form with an Authorized Participant. The Authorized Participant may request that you make certain representations or enter into agreements with respect to the order (e.g., to provide for payments of cash when required).

Placement of Purchase Orders. An Authorized Participant must deliver the cash and government securities portion of a fund deposit through the Federal Reserve's Fedwire System and the corporate securities portion of a fund deposit through the DTC. If a fund deposit is incomplete on the second business day after the trade date (the trade date, known as "T," is the date on which the trade actually takes place; two business days after the trade date is known as "T+2") because of the failed delivery of one or more of the Deposit Securities, the Fund shall be entitled to cancel the purchase order.

The Fund may issue Creation Units in reliance on the Authorized Participant's undertaking to deliver the missing Deposit Securities at a later date. Such undertaking shall be secured by the delivery and maintenance of cash collateral in an amount determined by the ETF Fund in accordance with the terms of the Participant Agreement.

Rejection of Purchase Orders. The Fund reserves the absolute right to reject a purchase order. By way of example, and not limitation, the Fund will reject a purchase order if:

⬛The order is not in proper form.

⬛The Deposit Securities delivered are not the same (in name or amount) as the published basket.

⬛Acceptance of the Deposit Securities would have certain adverse tax consequences to the Fund.

⬛Acceptance of the fund deposit would, in the opinion of counsel, be unlawful.

⬛Acceptance of the fund deposit would otherwise, at the discretion of the Fund or Vanguard, have an adverse effect on the Fund or any of its shareholders.

⬛Circumstances outside the control of the Fund, the Trust, the transfer agent, the custodian, the Distributor, and Vanguard make it for all practical purposes impossible to process the order. Examples include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, public service disruptions, or utility problems such as fires, floods, extreme weather conditions, and power outages resulting in telephone, telecopy, and computer failures; market conditions or activities causing trading halts; systems failures involving computer or other information systems affecting the aforementioned parties as well as the DTC, the NSCC, the Federal Reserve, or any other participant in the purchase process; and similar extraordinary events.

If a purchase order is rejected, the Distributor shall notify the Authorized Participant that submitted the order. The Fund, the Trust, the transfer agent, the custodian, the Distributor, and Vanguard are under no duty, however, to give notification of any defects or irregularities in the delivery of a fund deposit, nor shall any of them incur any liability for the failure to give any such notification.

Transaction Fee on Purchases of Creation Units. The Fund may impose a transaction fee (payable to the Fund) to compensate the Fund for costs associated with the issuance of Creation Units. The amount of the fee, which may be changed by the Fund from time to time at its sole discretion, is made available daily to Authorized Participants, market makers, and other interested parties through Vanguard's proprietary portal system. When the Fund permits (or requires) a purchaser to substitute cash in lieu of depositing one or more Deposit Securities, the purchaser may be assessed an additional charge on the cash-in-lieu portion of the investment. The amount of this charge will be disclosed to investors before they place their orders. The amount will be determined by the Fund at its sole discretion. The maximum transaction fee on purchases of Creation Units, including any additional charges as described, shall be 2% of the value of the Creation Units.

The Fund reserves the right to not impose a transaction fee or to vary the amount of the transaction fee imposed, up to the maximum amount listed above. To the extent a creation transaction fee is not charged or does not cover the costs associated with the issuance of the Creation Units, certain costs may be borne by the Fund.

Redemption of ETF Shares in Creation Units

To be eligible to place a redemption order, you must be an Authorized Participant. Investors that are not Authorized Participants must make appropriate arrangements with an Authorized Participant in order to redeem a Creation Unit.

ETF Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units. Investors should expect to incur brokerage and other transaction costs in connection with assembling a sufficient number of ETF Shares to constitute a redeemable Creation Unit. There can be no assurance, however, that there will be sufficient liquidity in the public trading market at any time to permit assembly of a Creation Unit. Redemption requests received on a business day in good order will receive the NAV next determined after the request is made.

Unless cash redemptions are available or specified for the Fund, an investor tendering a Creation Unit generally will receive redemption proceeds consisting of (1) a basket of Redemption Securities; plus (2) a redemption balancing amount in cash equal to the difference between (x) the NAV of the Creation Unit being redeemed, as next determined after receipt of a request in proper form, and (y) the value of the Redemption Securities; less (3) a transaction fee. If the Redemption Securities have a value greater than the NAV of a Creation Unit, the redeeming investor will pay the redemption balancing amount in cash to the Fund, rather than receive such amount from the Fund.

Vanguard, through the NSCC, makes available after the close of each business day a list of the names and the number of shares of each Redemption Security to be included in the next business day's redemption basket for the Fund (subject to possible amendment or correction). The basket of Redemption Securities provided to an investor redeeming a Creation Unit may not be identical to the basket of Deposit Securities required of an investor purchasing a Creation Unit. The Fund may provide a redeeming investor with a basket of Redemption Securities that differs from the composition of the redemption basket published through the NSCC.

The Fund reserves the right to deliver cash in lieu of any Redemption Security for the same reason it might accept cash in lieu of a Deposit Security, as previously discussed, or if the Fund could not lawfully deliver the security or could not do so without first registering such security under federal or state law.

Neither the Trust, the Fund, the Distributor, nor any affiliated party will be liable to an investor who is unable to submit a redemption order by Closing Time, even if the problem is the responsibility of one of those parties (e.g., the Distributor's phone or email systems were not operating properly).

Transaction Fee on Redemptions of Creation Units. The Fund may impose a transaction fee (payable to the Fund) to compensate the Fund for costs associated with the redemption of Creation Units. The amount of the fee, which may be changed by the Fund from time to time at its sole discretion, is made available daily to Authorized Participants, market makers, and other interested parties through Vanguard's proprietary portal system. An additional charge may be imposed for redemptions of Creation Units effected outside the Clearing Process. When the Fund permits (or requires) a redeeming investor to receive cash in lieu of one or more Redemption Securities, the Fund may assess an additional variable charge on the cash portion of the redemption. The amount will vary as determined by the Fund at its sole discretion and is made available daily to Authorized Participants, market makers, and other interested parties through Vanguard's proprietary portal system. The maximum transaction fee, including any variable charges, on redemptions of Creation Units shall be 2% of the value of the Creation Units.

The Fund reserves the right to not impose a transaction fee or to vary the amount of the transaction fee imposed, up to the maximum amount listed above. To the extent a redemption transaction fee is not charged or does not cover the costs associated with the redemption of the Creation Units, certain costs may be borne by the Fund.

Placement of Redemption Orders. To initiate a redemption order for a Creation Unit, an Authorized Participant must submit such order in proper form to the Distributor before Closing Time in order to receive that day's NAV. Authorized Participants must transmit orders using a transmission method acceptable to the Distributor pursuant to procedures set forth in the Participant Agreement.

If on the settlement date (typically T+2) an Authorized Participant has failed to deliver all of the Vanguard ETF Shares it is seeking to redeem, the Fund shall be entitled to cancel the redemption order. Alternatively, the Fund may deliver to the Authorized Participant the full complement of Redemption Securities and cash in reliance on the Authorized Participant's undertaking to deliver the missing ETF Shares at a later date. Such undertaking shall be secured by the Authorized Participant's delivery and maintenance of cash collateral in accordance with collateral procedures that are part of the Participant Agreement. In all cases the Fund shall be entitled to charge the Authorized Participant for any costs (including investment losses, attorney's fees, and interest) incurred by the Fund as a result of the late delivery or failure to deliver.

If an Authorized Participant, or a redeeming investor acting through an Authorized Participant, is subject to a legal restriction with respect to a particular security included in the basket of Redemption Securities, such investor may be paid an equivalent amount of cash in lieu of the security. In addition, the Fund reserves the right to redeem Creation Units partially for cash to the extent that the Fund could not lawfully deliver one or more Redemption Securities or could not do so without first registering such securities under federal or state law.

Suspension of Redemption Rights. The right of redemption may be suspended or the date of payment postponed with respect to the Fund (1) for any period during which the NYSE or listing exchange is closed (other than customary weekend and holiday closings), (2) for any period during which trading on the NYSE or listing exchange is suspended or restricted, (3) for any period during which an emergency exists as a result of which disposal of the Fund's portfolio securities or determination of its NAV is not reasonably practicable, or (4) in such other circumstances as the SEC permits.

Precautionary Notes

A precautionary note to ETF investors: The DTC or its nominee will be the registered owner of all outstanding ETF Shares. Your ownership of ETF Shares will be shown on the records of the DTC and the DTC Participant broker through which you hold the shares. Vanguard will not have any record of your ownership. Your account information will be maintained by your broker, which will provide you with account statements, confirmations of your purchases and sales of ETF Shares, and tax information. Your broker also will be responsible for distributing income and capital gains distributions and for ensuring that you receive shareholder reports and other communications from the fund whose ETF Shares you own. You will receive other services (e.g., dividend reinvestment and average cost information) only if your broker offers these services.

You should also be aware that investments in ETF Shares may be subject to certain risks relating to having large shareholders. To the extent that a large number of the Fund's ETF Shares are held by a large shareholder (e.g., an institutional investor, an investment advisor or an affiliate of an investment advisor, an authorized participant, a lead

market maker, or another entity), a large redemption by such a shareholder could result in an increase in the ETF's expense ratio, cause the ETF to incur higher transaction costs, cause the ETF to fail to comply with applicable listing standards of the listing exchange upon which it is listed, lead to the realization of taxable capital gains, or cause the remaining shareholders to receive distributions representing a disproportionate share of the ETF's ordinary income and long-term capital gains. In addition, transactions by large shareholders may account for a large percentage of the trading volume on an exchange and may, therefore, have a material upward or downward effect on the market price of the ETF Shares.

A precautionary note to purchasers of Creation Units: You should be aware of certain legal risks unique to investors purchasing Creation Units directly from the issuing fund.

Because new ETF Shares may be issued on an ongoing basis, a "distribution" of ETF Shares could be occurring at any time. Certain activities that you perform as a dealer could, depending on the circumstances, result in your being deemed a participant in the distribution in a manner that could render you a statutory underwriter and subject you to the prospectus delivery and liability provisions of the Securities Act of 1933 (the 1933 Act). For example, you could be deemed a statutory underwriter if you purchase Creation Units from the issuing fund, break them down into the constituent ETF Shares, and sell those shares directly to customers or if you choose to couple the creation of a supply of new ETF Shares with an active selling effort involving solicitation of secondary market demand for ETF Shares. Whether a person is an underwriter depends upon all of the facts and circumstances pertaining to that person's activities, and the examples mentioned here should not be considered a complete description of all the activities that could cause you to be deemed an underwriter.

Dealers who are not "underwriters" but are participating in a distribution (as opposed to engaging in ordinary secondary- market transactions), and thus dealing with ETF Shares as part of an "unsold allotment" within the meaning of Section 4(3)(C) of the 1933 Act, will be unable to take advantage of the prospectus delivery exemption provided by Section 4(3) of the 1933 Act.

A precautionary note to shareholders redeeming Creation Units: An Authorized Participant that is not a "qualified institutional buyer" as defined in Rule 144A under the 1933 Act will not be able to receive, as part of the redemption basket, restricted securities eligible for resale under Rule 144A.

A precautionary note to investment companies: Vanguard ETF Shares are issued by registered investment companies, and therefore the acquisition of such shares by other investment companies is subject to the restrictions of Section 12(d)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940. Vanguard has obtained SEC exemptive orders that allow registered investment companies to invest in the issuing funds beyond the limits of Section 12(d)(1), subject to certain terms and conditions, including the requirement to enter into a participation agreement with Vanguard. In connection with the recent adoption of new Rule 12d1-4 under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the orders were rescinded on January 19, 2022, and a fund's investments in Vanguard ETF Shares beyond the limits of Section 12(d)(1) are subject to the conditions of Rule 12d1-4, as described under the heading "Other Investment Companies."

FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

As of the date of this SAI, Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF has not commenced operations, and therefore financial statements are not yet available for the Fund. For a more complete discussion of each Fund's performance, please see the Funds' Annual and Semiannual Reports to Shareholders, which may be obtained without charge.

DESCRIPTION OF BOND RATINGS

Moody's Rating Symbols

The following describe characteristics of the global long-term (original maturity of 1 year or more) bond ratings provided by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. (Moody's):

Aaa—Judged to be obligations of the highest quality, they are subject to the lowest level of credit risk.

Aa—Judged to be obligations of high quality, they are subject to very low credit risk. Together with the Aaa group, they make up what are generally known as high-grade bonds.

A—Judged to be upper-medium-grade obligations, they are subject to low credit risk.

Baa—Judged to be medium-grade obligations, subject to moderate credit risk, they may possess certain speculative characteristics.

Ba—Judged to be speculative obligations, they are subject to substantial credit risk. B—Considered to be speculative obligations, they are subject to high credit risk.

Caa—Judged to be speculative obligations of poor standing, they are subject to very high credit risk.

Ca—Viewed as highly speculative obligations, they are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of recovery of principal and interest.

C—Viewed as the lowest rated obligations, they are typically in default, with little prospect for recovery of principal and interest.

Moody's also supplies numerical indicators (1, 2, and 3) to rating categories. The modifier 1 indicates that the security is in the higher end of its rating category, the modifier 2 indicates a mid-range ranking, and the modifier 3 indicates a ranking toward the lower end of the category.

The following describe characteristics of the global short-term (original maturity of 13 months or less) bond ratings provided by Moody's. This ratings scale also applies to U.S. municipal tax-exempt commercial paper.

Prime-1 (P-1)—Judged to have a superior ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

Prime-2 (P-2)—Judged to have a strong ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

Prime-3 (P-3)—Judged to have an acceptable ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

Not Prime (NP)—Cannot be judged to be in any of the prime rating categories.

The following describe characteristics of the U.S. municipal short-term bond ratings provided by Moody's:

Moody's ratings for state and municipal notes and other short-term (up to 3 years) obligations are designated Municipal Investment Grade (MIG).

MIG 1—Indicates superior quality, enjoying the excellent protection of established cash flows, liquidity support, and broad-based access to the market for refinancing.

MIG 2—Indicates strong credit quality with ample margins of protection, although not as large as in the preceding group.

MIG 3—Indicates acceptable credit quality, with narrow liquidity and cash-flow protection and less well-established market access for refinancing.

SG—Indicates speculative credit quality with questionable margins of protection.

Standard and Poor's Rating Symbols

The following describe characteristics of the long-term (original maturity of 1 year or more) bond ratings provided by Standard and Poor's:

AAA—These are the highest rated obligations. The capacity to pay interest and repay principal is extremely strong.

AA—These also qualify as high-grade obligations. They have a very strong capacity to pay interest and repay principal, and they differ from AAA issues only in small degree.

A—These are regarded as upper-medium-grade obligations. They have a strong capacity to pay interest and repay principal although they are somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than debt in higher-rated categories.

BBB—These are regarded as having an adequate capacity to pay interest and repay principal. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to lead to a weakened capacity in this regard. This group is the lowest that qualifies for commercial bank investment.

BB, B, CCC, CC, and C—These obligations range from speculative to significantly speculative with respect to the capacity to pay interest and repay principal. BB indicates the lowest degree of speculation and C the highest.

D—These obligations are in default, and payment of principal and/or interest is likely in arrears.

The ratings from AA to CCC may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (–) sign to show relative standing within the major rating categories.

The following describe characteristics of short-term (original maturity of 365 days or less) bond and commercial paper ratings designations provided by Standard and Poor's:

A-1—These are the highest rated obligations. The capacity of the obligor to pay interest and repay principal is strong. The addition of a plus sign (+) would indicate a very strong capacity.

A-2—These obligations are somewhat susceptible to changing economic conditions. The obligor has a satisfactory capacity to pay interest and repay principal.

A-3—These obligations are more susceptible to the adverse effects of changing economic conditions, which could lead to a weakened capacity to pay interest and repay principal.

B—These obligations are vulnerable to nonpayment and are significantly speculative, but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments.

C—These obligations are vulnerable to nonpayment, but the obligor must rely on favorable economic conditions to meet its financial commitment.

D—These obligations are in default, and payment of principal and/or interest is likely in arrears.

The following describe characteristics of U.S. municipal short-term (original maturity of 3 years or less) note ratings provided by Standard and Poor's:

SP-1—This designation indicates a strong capacity to pay principal and interest.

SP-2—This designation indicates a satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest.

SP-3—This designation indicates a speculative capacity to pay principal and interest.

APPENDIX A

Summary of the Vanguard-Advised Funds Proxy Voting Policy

The funds for which Vanguard acts as investment advisor (Vanguard-advised funds) retain authority to vote proxies received for the shares of equity securities held in each fund. The Board of Trustees (the Board) for the Vanguard- advised funds has adopted proxy voting procedures and guidelines to govern proxy voting for each portfolio retaining proxy voting authority.

The Investment Stewardship Oversight Committee (the Committee), comprised primarily of fund officers and subject to the procedures described below, oversees the Vanguard-advised funds' proxy voting. The Committee reports directly to the Board. Vanguard is subject to these procedures and the proxy voting policies to the extent that they call for Vanguard to administer the voting process and implement the resulting voting decisions, and for these purposes the voting policies have also been approved by the Board of Directors of Vanguard.

The voting principles and policies adopted by the Board provide a framework for assessing each proposal and seek to ensure that each vote is cast in the best interests of each fund. Under the voting policies, each proposal is evaluated on its merits, based on the particular facts and circumstances presented at the company in question. For more information on the funds' proxy voting policies, please visit about.vanguard.com/investment-stewardship.

I. Investment Stewardship Team

The Investment Stewardship Team administers the day-to-day operation of the funds' proxy voting process, overseen by the Committee. The Investment Stewardship Team performs the following functions: (1) managing and conducting

due diligence of proxy voting vendors; (2) reconciling share positions; (3) analyzing proxy proposals using factors described in the voting policies; (4) determining and addressing potential or actual conflicts of interest that may be presented by a particular proxy; and (5) voting proxies. The Investment Stewardship Team also prepares periodic and special reports for the Board and proposes amendments to the procedures and voting policies.

II. Investment Stewardship Oversight Committee

The Board, including a majority of the independent trustees, appoints the members of the Committee (which is comprised primarily of fund officers). The Committee works with the Investment Stewardship Team to provide reports and other guidance to the Board regarding proxy voting by the funds. The Committee has an obligation to exercise its decision- making authority in accordance with the Board's instructions as set forth in the funds' proxy voting procedures and voting policies and subject to the fiduciary standards of good faith, fairness, and Vanguard's Code of Ethics. The Committee may advise the Investment Stewardship Team on how to best apply the Boards' instructions as set forth in the voting policies or refer the matter to the Board, which has ultimate decision-making authority for the funds. The Board reviews the procedures and voting policies annually and modifies them from time to time upon the recommendation of the Committee and in consultation with the Investment Stewardship Team.

III. Proxy Voting Principles

Vanguard's investment stewardship activities are grounded in four principles of good governance:

1)Board composition: We believe good governance begins with a great board of directors. Our primary interest is to ensure that the individuals who represent the interests of all shareholders are independent, committed, capable, and diverse in personal characteristics, skills, and experience.

2)Oversight of strategy and risk: We believe that boards are responsible for effective oversight of a company's long-term strategy and material risks, including environmental, social, and governance risks.

3)Executive compensation: We believe that performance-linked compensation (or remuneration) policies and practices are fundamental drivers of sustainable, long-term value.

4)Shareholder rights: We believe that companies should have in place governance structures that serve to safeguard and support foundational rights for shareholders.

IV. Evaluation of Proxies

For ease of reference, the procedures and guidelines often refer to all funds. However, the processes and practices seek to ensure that proxy voting decisions are suitable for individual funds. For most proxy proposals, particularly those involving corporate governance, the evaluation could result in the funds having a common interest in the matter and, accordingly, each fund casting votes in the same manner. In other cases, however, a fund may vote differently from other funds if doing so is in the best interest of the individual fund.

The voting policies do not permit the Board to delegate voting discretion to a third party that does not serve as a fiduciary for the funds. Because many factors bear on each decision, the voting policies incorporate factors that should be considered in each voting decision. A fund may refrain from voting some or all of its shares or vote in a particular way if doing so would be in the fund's and its shareholders' best interests. These circumstances may arise, for example, if the expected cost of voting exceeds the expected benefits of voting, if exercising the vote would result in the imposition of trading or other restrictions, or if a fund (or all Vanguard funds in the aggregate) were to own more than the permissible maximum percentage of a company's stock (as determined by the company's governing documents or by applicable law, regulation, or regulatory agreement).

In evaluating proxy proposals, the Investment Stewardship team considers information from many sources, which could include, but is not limited to, the perspectives of the company management or shareholders presenting a proposal, independent proxy research services or proprietary research. Additionally, data and recommendations from proxy advisors serve as one of many inputs into our research process.

While serving as a framework, the voting policies cannot contemplate all possible proposals with which a fund may be presented. In the absence of a specific guideline for a particular proposal (e.g., in the case of a transactional issue or contested proxy), the Investment Stewardship Team, under the supervision of the Committee, will evaluate the matter and cast the fund's vote in a manner that is in the fund's best interest, subject to the individual circumstances of the fund.

V. Conflicts of Interest

Vanguard takes seriously its commitment to avoid potential conflicts of interest. Vanguard funds invest in thousands of publicly listed companies worldwide. Those companies may include clients, potential clients, vendors, or competitors. Some companies may employ Vanguard trustees, former Vanguard executives, or family members of Vanguard personnel who have direct involvement in Vanguard's Investment Stewardship program.

Vanguard's approach to mitigating conflicts of interest begins with the funds' proxy voting procedures. The procedures require that voting personnel act as fiduciaries, and must conduct their activities at all times in accordance with the following standards: (i) fund shareholders' interests come first; (ii) conflicts of interest must be avoided; (iii) and compromising situations must be avoided.

We maintain an important separation between Vanguard's Investment Stewardship Team and other groups within Vanguard that are responsible for sales, marketing, client service, and vendor/partner relationships. Proxy voting personnel are required to disclose potential conflicts of interest, and must recuse themselves from all voting decisions and engagement activities in such instances. In certain circumstances, Vanguard may refrain from voting shares of a company, or may engage an independent third-party fiduciary to vote proxies.

Each externally managed fund has adopted the proxy voting guidelines of its advisor(s) and votes in accordance with the external advisors' guidelines and procedures. Each advisor has its own procedures for managing conflicts of interest in the best interests of fund shareholders.

VI. Shareholder Proposals

Shareholder proposals are evaluated in the context of the general corporate governance principle that a company's board has ultimate responsibility for providing effective ongoing oversight of relevant sector and company-specific risks, including risks related to environmental and social matters. Each proposal is evaluated on its merits and in the context of the particular facts and circumstances at the company in question and supported when there is a logically demonstrable linkage between the specific proposal and long-term shareholder value of the company. Some of the factors considered when evaluating shareholder proposals include the materiality of the risk addressed by the proposal, the quality of the current disclosures/business practices, and any progress by the company toward the adoption of best practices and/or industry norms.

VII. Voting in Markets Outside the United States

Corporate governance standards, disclosure requirements, and voting mechanics vary greatly among the markets outside the United States (U.S.) in which the funds may invest. Each fund's votes will be used, where applicable, to support improvements in governance and disclosure by each fund's portfolio companies. Matters presented by non-U.S. portfolio companies will be evaluated in the foregoing context, as well as in accordance with local market standards and best practices. Votes are cast for each fund in a manner philosophically consistent with the voting policies, taking into account differing practices by market.

In many other markets, voting proxies will result in a fund being prohibited from selling the shares for a period of time due to requirements known as "share-blocking" or reregistration. Generally, the value of voting is unlikely to outweigh the loss of liquidity imposed by these requirements on the funds. In such instances, the funds will generally abstain from voting.

The costs of voting (e.g., custodian fees, vote agency fees) in other markets may be substantially higher than for U.S. holdings. As such, the fund may limit its voting on foreign holdings in instances in which the issues presented are unlikely to have a material impact on shareholder value.

VIII. Voting Shares of a Company That Has an Ownership Limitation

Certain companies have provisions in their governing documents or other agreements that restrict stock ownership in excess of a specified limit. Typically, these ownership restrictions are included in the governing documents of real estate investment trusts but may be included in other companies' governing documents. A company's governing documents normally allow the company to grant a waiver of these ownership limits, which would allow a fund to exceed the stated ownership limit. Sometimes a company will grant a waiver without restriction. From time to time, a company may grant a waiver only if a fund (or funds) agrees to not vote the company's shares in excess of the normal specified limit. In such a circumstance, a fund may refrain from voting shares if owning the shares beyond the company's specified limit is in the best interests of the fund and its shareholders.

In addition, applicable law may require prior regulatory approval to permit ownership of certain regulated issuers' voting securities above certain limits or may impose other restrictions on owners of more than a certain percentage of a regulated issuer's voting shares. The Board has authorized the funds to vote shares above these limits in the same proportion as votes cast by the issuer's entire shareholder base (i.e., mirror vote), or to refrain from voting excess shares. Further, the Board has adopted policies that will result in certain funds mirror voting a higher proportion of the shares they own in a regulated issuer in order to permit certain other funds (generally advised by managers not affiliated with Vanguard) to mirror vote none, or a lower proportion, of their shares in such regulated issuer.

IX. Voting on a Fund's Holdings of Other Vanguard Funds

Certain Vanguard funds (owner funds) may, from time to time, own shares of other Vanguard funds (underlying funds). If an underlying fund submits a matter to a vote of its shareholders, votes for and against such matters on behalf of the owner funds will be cast in the same proportion as the votes of the other shareholders in the underlying fund.

X. Securities Lending

There may be occasions when Vanguard needs to restrict lending of and/or recall securities that are out on loan in order to vote in a shareholder meeting. Vanguard has processes to monitor securities on loan and to evaluate any circumstances that may require us to restrict and/or recall the stock. In making this decision, we consider:

⬛The subject of the vote and whether, based on our knowledge and experience, we believe the topic is potentially material to the corporate governance and/or long-term performance of the company;

⬛The Vanguard funds' individual and/or aggregate equity investment in a company, and whether we estimate that voting Vanguard funds' shares would affect the shareholder meeting outcome; and

⬛The long-term impact to our fund shareholders, evaluating whether we believe the benefits of voting a company's shares would outweigh the benefits of stock lending revenues in a particular instance.

SAI XX 122022

PART C

VANGUARD WELLINGTON FUND

OTHER INFORMATION

Item 28. Exhibits

(a)Articles of Incorporation, Amended and Restated Agreement and Declaration of Trust, to be filed by amendment.

(b)By-Laws, Amended and Restated By-Laws, filed with Post-Effective Amendment No. 118 dated March 29, 2021, are hereby incorporated by reference.

(c)Instruments Defining Rights of Security Holders, reference is made to Articles III and V of the Registrant's Amended and Restated Agreement and Declaration of Trust, refer to Exhibit (a) above.

(d)Investment Advisory Contracts, for Wellington Management Company LLP , filed with Post-Effective Amendment No. 100 dated March 25, 2014, is hereby incorporated by reference. The Vanguard Group, Inc., provides investment advisory services to Vanguard Factor Funds, and Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF pursuant to the Fifth Amended and Restated Funds' Service Agreement, refer to Exhibit (h) below.

(e)Underwriting Contracts, not applicable.

(f)Bonus or Profit Sharing Contracts, reference is made to the section entitled "Management of the Funds" in Part B of this Registration Statement.

(g)Custodian Agreements, for State Street Bank and Trust Company, to be filed by amendment. For The Bank of New York Mellon and JPMorgan Chase Bank, are filed herewith.

(h)Other Material Contracts, Fifth Amended and Restated Funds' Service Agreement , filed with Post-Effective Amendment No. 116, dated March 27, 2020, is hereby incorporated by reference. Form Fund of Funds Investment Agreement , filed with Post-Effective Amendment No. 119, dated March 30, 2022, are hereby incorporated by reference.

(i)Legal Opinion, not applicable.

(j)Other Opinions, Consent of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm, not applicable.

(k)Omitted Financial Statements, not applicable.

(l)Initial Capital Agreements, not applicable.

(m)Rule 12b-1 Plan, not applicable.

(n)Rule 18f-3 Plan, is filed herewith.

(o)Reserved.

(p)Codes of Ethics, for Wellington Management Company LLP , filed with Post-Effective Amendment No. 118, dated March 29, 2021, are hereby incorporated by reference. For The Vanguard Group, Inc., is filed herewith.

Item 29. Persons Controlled by or under Common Control with Registrant

None.

Item 30. Indemnification

The Registrant's organizational documents contain provisions indemnifying Trustees and officers against liability incurred in their official capacities. Article VII, Section 2 of the Amended and Restated Agreement and Declaration of Trust provides that the Registrant may indemnify and hold harmless each and every Trustee and officer from and against any and all claims, demands, costs, losses, expenses, and damages whatsoever arising out of or related to the performance of his or her duties as a Trustee or officer. Article VI of the By-Laws generally provides that the Registrant shall indemnify its Trustees and officers from any liability arising out of their past or present service in that capacity. Among other things, this provision excludes any liability arising by reason of willful misfeasance, bad faith, gross negligence, or the reckless disregard of the duties involved in the conduct of the Trustee's or officer's office with the Registrant.

C-1

Insofar as indemnification for liabilities arising under the Securities Act of 1933 (the Securities Act) may be permitted for directors, officers, or persons controlling the Registrant pursuant to the foregoing provisions, the Registrant has been informed that in the opinion of the Securities and Exchange Commission, such indemnification is against public policy as expressed in the Securities Act and is therefore unenforceable.

Item 31. Business and Other Connections of Investment Adviser

Wellington Management Company LLP (Wellington Management) is an investment adviser registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (the Advisers Act). The list required by this Item 31 of officers and partners of Wellington Management, together with any information as to any business, profession, vocation, or employment of a substantial nature engaged in by such officers and partners during the past two years, is incorporated herein by reference from Form ADV filed by Wellington Management pursuant to the Advisers Act (SEC File No. 801-15908).

The Vanguard Group, Inc. (Vanguard), is an investment adviser registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (the Advisers Act). The list required by this Item 31 of officers and directors of Vanguard, together with any information as to any business, profession, vocation, or employment of a substantial nature engaged in by such officers and directors during the past two years, is incorporated herein by reference from Form ADV filed by Vanguard pursuant to the Advisers Act (SEC File No. 801- 11953).

Item 32. Principal Underwriters

(a)Vanguard Marketing Corporation, a wholly owned subsidiary of The Vanguard Group, Inc., is the principal underwriter of each fund within the Vanguard group of investment companies, a family of over 200 funds.

(b)The principal business address of each named director and officer of Vanguard Marketing Corporation is 100 Vanguard Boulevard, Malvern, PA 19355.

Name	Positions and Office with Underwriter		Positions and Office with Funds
Matthew J. Benchener	Vice President and Chief Executive Officer		None
	Designee
Karin A. Risi	Vice President	None
Thomas M. Rampulla	Vice President		None
Michael Rollings	Vice President	Finance Director
John Bisordi	General Counsel and Vice President	Assistant Secretary
Tara Buckley	Vice President and Assistant Secretary	None
Matthew C. Brancato	Vice President		None
Mortimer J. Buckley	President		Chief Executive Officer and President
Beth Morales Singh	Secretary	None
Erica Green	Chief Compliance Officer	None
Sarah Green	Anti-Money Laundering Officer	None
Nitin Tandon	Chief Information Officer	None
Manish Nagar	Chief Information Security Officer	None
Salvatore L. Pantalone	Principal Financial Officer and Treasurer	None
Matthew Tretter	Financial Operations Officer	None
Danielle Corey	Annuity and Insurance Officer	None
Jeff Seglem	Annuity and Insurance Officer	None
Barbara Bock	Controller		None
Jason Botzler	Vice President	None
Jon Cleborne	Vice President	None
Kaitlyn Holmes	Vice President	None
Andrew Kadjeski	Vice President	None

C-2

SIGNATURES

Pursuant to the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 and the Investment Company Act of 1940, the Registrant has duly caused this Registration Statement to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereunto duly authorized, in the Town of Valley Forge and the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, on the 22nd day of December, 2022.

VANGUARD WELLINGTON FUND

BY: /s/ Mortimer J. Buckley*

Mortimer J. Buckley

Chairman and Chief Executive Officer

Pursuant to the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933, this Post-Effective Amendment to the Registration Statement has been signed below by the following persons in the capacities and on the date indicated:

Signature	Title	Date
/s/ Mortimer J. Buckley*	Chairman and Chief Executive Officer	December 22, 2022

Mortimer J. Buckley
/s/ Tara Bunch*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Tara Bunch
/s/ Emerson U. Fullwood*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Emerson U. Fullwood
/s/ F. Joseph Loughrey*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

F. Joseph Loughrey
/s/ Mark Loughridge*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Mark Loughridge
/s/ Scott C. Malpass*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Scott C. Malpass
/s/ Deanna Mulligan*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Deanna Mulligan
/s/ André F. Perold*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

André F. Perold
/s/ Sarah Bloom Raskin*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Sarah Bloom Raskin
/s/ David Thomas*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

David Thomas
/s/ Peter F. Volanakis*	Trustee	December 22, 2022

Peter F. Volanakis
/s/ Christine Buchanan*	Chief Financial Officer	December 22, 2022

Christine Buchanan

*By: /s/ Anne E. Robinson

Anne E. Robinson, pursuant to a Power of Attorney filed on October 11, 2022 (see File Number 333-11763), Incorporated by Reference.

Transaction Fee on Purchases and Sales	None*
Transaction Fee on Reinvested Dividends	None*
Transaction Fee on Conversion to ETF Shares	None*
* None through Vanguard (Broker fees vary)

Management Fees	XX%
12b-1 Distribution Fee	None
Other Expenses	XX%
Total Annual Fund Operating Expenses¹	0.07%

1 Year	3 Years
$XX	$XX

Type of Bond (Maturity)	After a 1%	After a 1%	After a 2%	After a 2%
Type of Bond (Maturity)	Increase	Decrease	Increase	Decrease
Short-Term (2.5 years)	$977	$1,024	$954	$1,049
Intermediate-Term (10 years)	922	1,086	851	1,180
Long-Term (20 years)	874	1,150	769	1,328
1 Assuming a 4% coupon rate.

ETF Summary	XX
Investing in Vanguard ETF®Shares	XX
Investing in Index Funds	XX
Investing in Tax-Exempt Funds	XX

More on the Fund and ETF Shares	XX
The Fund and Vanguard	XX
Investment Advisor	XX
Dividends, Capital Gains, and Taxes	XX
Share Price and Market Price	XX
Additional Information	XX
Financial Highlights	XX
Glossary of Investment Terms	XX

	Inception	Vanguard	CUSIP
	Inception	Fund	CUSIP
	Date	Number	Number

Vanguard Short-Term Tax-Exempt Bond ETF	XX	XX	XX

Amy M. Laursen	Vice President	None
Paul M. Jakubowski	Vice President	None
John James	Vice President	None
James D. Martielli	Vice President	None
Armond E. Mosley	Vice President	None
David Petty	Vice President	None
David MacBride	Vice President	None
Massy Williams	Vice President	None
(c) Not applicable.